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00:59
@imbAF It doesnt work. Throw it aside.
 
2 hours later…
03:02
why does $S'_{pp}$ make perfect sense for massless particles?
03:18
ooo finally a q from silly goose I know something about :) qmechanic talked about it in some of his answers on the main site. it makes sense because the einbein which is here eta is unspecified. it's like a gauge freedom
you've removed the sqrt from the original action
what book did you get this from btw?
the reason the sqrt action is senseless for the massless case is because when you try to vary it you get space like parts of the curve and time like parts
this is mentioned in wald :)
that book skips a few lines of working
sorry forgot to reply ping you @SillyGoose
@imbAF The Dirac sea model was a first step to interpret the negative-energy quantum states predicted by the Dirac equation. It was proposed before the positron (or any other antiparticle) was discovered. It's totally superseded by QFT. It's only interesting for historical reasons, like Bohr's orbitals.
@imbAF When posting handwritten mathematics, please consider my suggestions here: math.meta.stackexchange.com/a/33091/207316
> if you really must post an image, please try to make it neat and clear, with good lighting and no shadows, and no crossed-out material or inscrutable little blobs. Use a clean page, not one with pen impressions on it, or with anything showing through from the other side.
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03:37
@qwerty this is from polchinski's string theory vol. 1
@SillyGoose I think I downloaded that for this section :)
@qwerty hehe
@SillyGoose I'm seriously suspicious of this text. Yes, we use the word tetrad even if it is not 4D, but tetrad is synonymous with vierbein and there is a n-D version, vielbein. However, that is not at all what this text is using. This $\eta$ is not a tetrad at all. It is an einbein, which is totally something else. You should have written down $S_{pp}$ so that we can talk about this easier.
here is $S_{pp}$
but yeah the einbein $\eta$ is unspecified for $m=0$ and if you pick for $m >0$ the choice $\eta = \frac{1}{mc} $ you get affine parameterised curves
:) I really liked this when I learnt it
03:43
in what context did you all learn about this einbein business 0:
I self learnt it when writing up my PhD thesis and qmechanics answers helped out for some of it
twas not in the literature for my field
what was your phd thesis on?
like a lot of what I thought was important
@SillyGoose mhmm I don't want to get more specific than late universe / non HEP cosmology
I had a bone to pick with a lot of the lit lol
twas non rigorous
(for a specific part, not even just non rigorous, handwaving where handwaving = step clearly not permissible)
@Slereah Yeah. The spatial incoherence is an instant giveaway that it wasn't created by a human. Ok, sometimes humans do that kind of thing deliberately, like Escher, but you can tell there's some artistic purpose to their bending of the rules. But GenAI image synthesizers don't give that impression, it just looks like a mistake.
There's a simple example in meta.stackexchange.com/a/403417/334566 The scene is mostly coherent, apart from her right arm. Here's one from chat.stackexchange.com/rooms/155368/thinking-out-loud produced via OakBot i.sstatic.net/1KIH07l3.jpg What's going on with the hair and scarf / hood of the girl in the foreground?
GenAI can easily draw hands with real fingers, but it often has problems drawing hands with integer fingers. ;)
Anyway, $S_{pp}$ is linearly proportional to $m$ and clearly is nonsense when $m=0$, whereas this answer by Qmechanic said that the einbein is not integrated out when $m=0$, in which case then you can see manifestly that it is sensible.
2
A: Massive vs. massless relativistic point particle in einbein form: Difference in the gauge structure?

Qmechanic The action (1) has a world-line (WL) reparametrization gauge symmetry in both the massive and massless case. An important difference is that in the massless case one cannot eliminate/integrate out the einbein field $e$, cf. e.g. this Phys.SE post. In contrast such elimination in the massive cas...

@SillyGoose Polchinski definitely knows that einbein isnt the same thing as tetrad, so this is an egregious mistake
04:00
@naturallyInconsistent I thought you could still vary a curve even if you have $m=0$ and it being proprotional, it's the sqrt thats problematic. this was according to wald iirc
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Hello Everyone...
@qwerty see Qmechanic's answer
I'm not claiming to be an expert on this; sqrt or m, something breaks down
@naturallyInconsistent as far as I can tell it's not in contradiction with what I was saying. but yes. it breaks down.
04:16
Greetings @naturallyInconsistent (~~Miao Miao ),
Pineapple Island is in danger :(
04:38
seeee
it comes up ALL the freaking time
F :<
@qwerty nothing a little ignoring cannot handle~
too late, I've made it a side quest >=]
I am basking in the glory of once again, the freedom to make my own mistakes and not someone elses'
highly underrated! :D
thank you! ❤️
04:53
🙈🙉🙊
@naturallyInconsistent Because of China,
@qwerty What does this mean? I've not got it :'|
@LuckyChouhan your academic/intellectual freedom as a grad student is heavily dependent on your advisor. the power imbalance is pretty extreme
you can find yourself in sticky situations.
@qwerty Yeah, I agree. It is very crucial in research to get an advisor who matches your frequency, that's why when I see many Abel and Nobel Prize laureates most of them are professors and they really had good advisors,
05:11
there are so many variables I don't think much of it is in our control. a lot of it is just luck: right place, right time, right project, right person.
your experience can be drastically different if those variables differ.
@qwerty yeah, what do you think do you have the type of advisors or colleagues you want?
@LuckyChouhan me? now, or during my academic career?
@qwerty yeah, I don't know you're a student or working professional:') So yeah in your academic career..
05:29
I don't know if I can go into the sort of specifics that would make my story understandable in a public chat; I will think about what exactly to answer later tonight and get back to you. I do want to answer as I believe this is an important topic
@LuckyChouhan did something happen?
I'm conscious that oftentimes and especially on the internet people throw around loaded words without regard for accuracy or acknowledgement of their weight. I don't want to give the impression I'm doing that if I say something vague.
CERN should make sauerkraut to help pay their electricity bill.
Nov 24, 2023 at 12:23, by PM 2Ring
Early this year, someone asked Hank Green what a spoon of protons would taste like. https://youtube.com/shorts/vJMvFIqU8hk?si=r_aKCWLyHRxS-coc So I got curious about how hot it would be. If I'm calculating correctly, ~1 mg of protons confined to a ball of radius 1 cm would be a little more energetic than LHC beam protons.
06:13
@qwerty sure,
@naturallyInconsistent we all know about the tension between China and Taiwan, so I don't have much to say China says Taiwan is their territory (Remember one China Policy) and they will make it happen and there is also possibility of war in Korean peninsula. Oh god, war war war all the sides. Israel doesn't care about UN's resolutions and banned UN Chief :( What is happening in Aisa, huh
@LuckyChouhan but if there is no immediate event to consider, miao miao would be confused as to what it is you are referring to. The people here have been threatened with war from them for decades; it is usually ignored, and mostly safely so.
07:19
hi
07:56
@naturallyInconsistent The einbein is the 1d version of the vielbein, Polchinski is correct. Note that one defining characteristic of the vielbein is that its square (suitable interpreted) is the metric and that's what the einbein is.
(the names could've told you that - the vierbein (tetrad) is German for "four-legs", the vielbein is the generic form meaning many-legs, and einbein means one-leg)
@ACuriousMind I thought that was the case but wasn't confident enough to say anything
is the einbein the same as a threading lapse function or does it just squeak the same?
I don't know what a "threading lapse function" is
I know the lapse function from the ADM formalism
oh well nvm then
yeah that's not the same when you do threading versus slicing
The Einbein's a weird thing because it's the frame field, it's a vector field and it's a volume form all at once
And people aren't typically very clear about which meaning they mean when they write it
08:16
I was told you can just think of it as a parameter like a Lagrange multiplier
I didn't think of it as any of those other things
It's only a proper Lagrange multiplier in the massless case
at least in the Lagrangian action - in the Hamiltonian action it's always a multiplier since it's what enforced the constraint $p^2 = m^2$
what do you imply by an improper Lagrange multiplier?
a Lagrange multiplier $\lambda$ should occur in the action in a single term of the form $\lambda f(x)$, where $f(x)$ is its associated constraint
but in the massive Lagrangian action, both $e$ and $e^{-1}$ occur
hmmmm
what's the physical intuition of this "should"?
sorry, I actually never used Lagrange multiplier more than a couple of times many years ago
I mean that's just the definition of what a Lagrange multiplier is :P
08:29
@ACuriousMind it gives you the mass shell condition in the Lagrangian formulation too
so I kinda thought it just made sense that way
@think_meaning_builds hi
@qwerty oh, I'm not saying it's completely wrong to think about it that way - as I said, in the Hamiltonian formulation it's always a standard multiplier
I'm just pointing out that in the Lagrangian action it does not technically fulfill the definition of how a Lagrange multiplier looks
but the comment about the mass shell condition?
What about it?
I thought you were implying it only comes from the einbein in the Hamiltonian formulation and that tied in to why it was "proper"
08:33
Why hasn't ACM mentioned QoGS yet? :P
@ACuriousMind but we dont use it like we use a vierbein? For the massive case, where it is most well-defined, going by how you said it, it is a mutated form of the Hamiltonian action's Lagrange multiplier into the Lagrangian action; we don't usually use the vierbein anywhere near like that.
By the way, I think I also had some trouble understanding the einbein as a Lagrange multiplier
@naturallyInconsistent well that's because differential geometry in 1 dimension is not very interesting :P
doesn't change it's a vielbein for n=1
Hey, 1D is the best for everything
1D calculus is so much neater than 2+D
@ACuriousMind interestingness or not is not my point here; I wont deny that you are saying that it is a vielbein for n=1; I'm saying that we dont use it like we use a vielbein at all.
08:38
@naturallyInconsistent mutated is a bit rude ;( I like lagrangians
Hamiltonians are scary
@qwerty miao miao likes Lagrangians too; why would that be a rude anything??
@qwerty No, that's not what I meant. It's just that it's a proper constraint in the Hamiltonian formulation (in the sense of the constrained Hamiltonian formalism); in the Lagrangian formalism it's just an equation of motion
@naturallyInconsistent I guess connotations of mutations - mutants
@ACuriousMind here you said it is a multiplier in the Hamiltonian action?
I am so tempted to drop a link to my thesis here lol
08:41
@qwerty mutatis mutandis
@naturallyInconsistent yes?
I feel people are trying to interpret much more into my words here than I actually meant :P
@ACuriousMind and you say it is a proper constraint later; just to be clear, you mean that it is a proper constraint enforced via Lagrange multipliers?
@ACuriousMind you only have yourself to blame for not being precise/rigorous! ;p
@naturallyInconsistent Constraints appear in the full Hamiltonian action via Lagrange multipliers
could it not be something else?
Like, Dirac had a whole spiel about constrained Hamiltonians
08:43
yes, I mean exactly that formalism; the condition $p^2 = m^2$ is exactly a Hamiltonian constraint in Dirac's and Bergmann's sense
I never understood the many things Dirac was pioneering in all that constrained Hamiltonian bits
so didn't want to say the wrong stuff
But look, I'm trying to point out that we dont use vielbeins as a constraint anything, but einbeins are. The intended usage is way too different.
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Hello @RyderRude
When you try to Legendre transform the action, you get $p^2 = m^2$ as a first-class constraint, and the gauge symmetry generated by it is the reparametrization invariance of the action. See e.g. this answer by Qmechanic
@naturallyInconsistent I don't really know very much about this, so don't take this message too seriously. That's probably because typically einbeins appear in the description of a 1D submanifold (e.g. a string in spacetime), while vielbein in GR describes the geometry of spacetime itself
So you're not constraining anything in the second case
@123 hello
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08:51
Now i am free
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I have question yesterday. But there was problem in internet
inertial mass and gravitational mass has relation with quantity of matter.
@Mr.Feynman not like miao miao is any more informed than you are; the ones who know what is happening is ACM, Slereah, and Qmechanic.
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Gravitational mass also depend on type of matter. like steel of planet and soil of planet same size and density can have different gravitational mass.
@123 what is ur question
08:56
@naturallyInconsistent The thing is that 1d is so degenerate a case that many concepts that are distinct in higher dimensions coincide here. You can view the einbein as the 1d version of the vielbein (square-root of the metric), you can view it as the 1d ADM lapse function (that's the analogue to choose for the constraint view), ...
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@RyderRude gravitational mass also depend on type of matter e.g planet made of steel and planet made of soil has different gravitational mass?
Those "..." are scary
@ACuriousMind I don't think it's the adm lapse function for massless or massive particles
@123 what do u think the answer is and why
I think it's the threading one as I mentioned
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08:58
@RyderRude Because inertial mass and gravitational mass experimentally found to be equal. Then i think yes type of does matter in gravitational mass also
@123 that is correct...
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Thanks
@RyderRude It is weird to think material has two characteristics resistance against velocity change and force of attraction.
Means one property resisting motion change. and same material have property cause of motion change
@qwerty I do - ADM writes $\mathrm{d}s^2 = N^2\mathrm{d}t^2 + \text{terms not there in 1d}$ and the einbein has also $\mathrm{d}s^2 = e^2\mathrm{d}t^2$
@123 right. But it is what the experiments tell us. Galileo was able to know this even without experiments
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Material have resistance against acceleration and also cause of producing acceleration.
09:02
16
Q: Is Galileo's argument about falling bodies logically flawed?

ConifoldGalileo's famous argument against the Aristotle's theory of falling bodies goes like this (taken from THEP forum, now defunct):"Let's say heavy objects do fall faster than light ones. Then it seems the heavier weight will fall with the lighter weight acting, as it were, a bit like a parachute. In...

I don't know what the threading lapse is but I would not be surprised if it also coincides with the einbein in 1D
@123 Galileo made an armchair argument about why the falling acceleration does not depend on quantity of matter
and he also tested it famously
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@RyderRude Pls explain.
before that, people thought heavier things fall faster
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Ookay...
09:05
@123 take two bodies made of identical matter and identical density. one has bigger size than the other. this means one has more inertial mass.
now, assume that the bigger one falls faster than the smaller one
we will see that this is impossible
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Yes
@ACuriousMind that is one superposition that miao miao did not wish to be attacked by
what happens if u glue these bodies together and drop them from a height. the glued body has more matter than both the constituent bodies. Therefore, it should fall faster
@RyderRude No, people didn't think that, Aristotle (who was essentially wrong about everything) thought that. Plenty of people understood Aristotle was wrong, they just weren't worshipped like him. Vitruvius already suggested in the 1st century CE that the gravity of objects did not depend on their weight, cf. reddit.com/r/AskHistorians/comments/2a60b9/comment/cis1w0q
@ACuriousMind I think from a purely intuitive POV (I'll dig up the details later when I'm home) what we want is a measure of the parametrisation of the worldline or curve. in the threading formalism you follow along the curves (so the plus other terms that you wrote completes the squares iirc in the other sense; you follow the frame of the particle) so it makes sense it's just the einbein.
09:08
@ACuriousMind oh
whereas I don't have that straightforward idea in the slicing view: the threading and slicing lapse functions definitely don't coincide.
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@RyderRude yes but experiment shows acceleration remain the same
@ACuriousMind But heavier things do fall faster!
Pretty unfair to judge Aristotle like that imo
yes air resistance is dependent on mass iirc
Yes
and Aristotle was very much talking about mechanics in a medium, he didn't even believe a vacuum was possible
09:11
@ACuriousMind interesting..
He thought that objects in a vacuum would go at an infinite speed, which to be fair would mean that falling speed would be independent of mass :p
so Galileo only contributed that mass was irrelevant
@123 yes, but we will try to figure it out without experiment
@Slereah I got into an argument with my high school physics teacher over this since he would never say 'in a vacuum' which is a very important condition imo
Just ask him how he ended up being a high school teacher if he was so good at physics
well, tbf he said it like once then decided it wasn't important
09:13
@123 if the two components of the glued body fall at different rates, then the smaller body would act as a parachute for the bigger body, cuz it will try to slow it down. this means the whole glued body must fall at a lower rate than its smaller constituent
@Slereah He can sue me if he thinks I'm being unfair to him
He's gonna haunt your ass
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okay
@123 so we have showed that fall rate cannot depend on amount of matter
@Slereah lol I shouldn't knock him too hard. he was a substitute and definitely miles ahead of our main physics teacher who was a biologist by training
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09:14
yes
@123 but it is mostly determined by experiments. i would say there are hidden assumptions in Galileo's armchair argument
so one must use experiments in the end
If you use experiment you'd find that heavier objects go faster
also people didn't really have good time measurement for free fall experiments in olden times
@Slereah i meant experiments in a vacuum
@Slereah but one can just drop them at once?
Galileo used objects falling on an inclined plane to simulate it going slower, which is questionable about whether this is the same case as freefall
i recently tried to demonstrate this experiment to a person, but I felt like i failed
i then had to say "they fall at the same time if air was negligible"
09:17
@Slereah I'm not afraid of a poltergeist who doesn't understand physics!
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What i have concluded about mass , it is related to quantity of matter. Whether it is inertial mass, gravitational mass or in terms of density use in checmistry
@ACuriousMind Ain't afraid of no ghost?
@Slereah i need some help if u have a minute...
@Slereah the marshmallow man is pretty scary
have I said anything wrong in this answer physics.stackexchange.com/a/830870/156987 @Slereah
09:19
I wouldn't call Aristotle Marshmallow-shaped
@RyderRude you can do it with a piece of paper the same size as a thick book, on top of the thick book
I didn't mean Aristotle was the marshmallow man, I'm just saying there are ghosts I'm afraid of :P
@ACuriousMind what is the marshmallow man?
it this like some German ghost? :p
have you never seen the original Ghostbusters :P
@qwerty thanks. That's genius
@qwerty i will use this demonstration the next time
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09:22
How to tag own comment?
@RyderRude the high school teacher I knocked wasn't completely useless haha
@ACuriousMind Gee, feeling like an old man now
@123 i haven't found a way
@ACuriousMind I think I might have but completely forgotten it xD my apologies
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@RyderRude What about my above comment in explaining mass?
09:23
I'm not entirely confident about that answer because I haven't studied this in detail
@qwerty how could you forget the marshmallow man!
@123 yeah.. it depends on quantity and type
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Let explain. 1. Quantity of matter increases which increase resistance in motion change. 2. Quantity of matter increases which increases force of gravity 3. Quantity of matter increases density of material increases.
@RyderRude Yes quantity of material and type of material.
@123 the third one is wrong. Can u tell why
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@RyderRude If size/volume increases then density can remain the same.
09:26
@123 yes
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But problem is that, we don't exactly know what actual is. We know only from related quantities.
@Slereah i thought he used this to demonstrate law of inertia
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@RyderRude Yes i have a plan to make a youtube video for students. Because still there is no video which fully explain newton's laws of motion.
@123 u can maybe use Galileo's inclined plane for the first law
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I was confused about N3L and N2L. Then i found in N3L our system contains two particles system with no external force for law of momentum. And in N2L we take one particle as system and other as external
@RyderRude Yes i have made the presentation and simulation for it.
But N3L and N2L required mass to explain and understand fully.
09:32
great
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Because normally people understand mass as quantity of matter. But what i found mass in reality is not quantity of matter rather mass is related to quantity of matter. It just give us sense of mass not actual idea of mass
Am i correct
yes. the mass of an electron or any other fundamental particle is not related to the quantity of matter
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@RyderRude One more idea of mass in sense of people using apparent weight. More quantity of matter feels heavier , but feeling heavy is force not mass.
In chemistry people also relate mass with quantity of matter.
yes. e.g. far away in outer space or in a free fall elevator, u won't feel the weight of anything u hold
but they still have mass
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All of these idea of mass is true because in actual mass is related to quantity of matter.
09:35
I see, so high school physics/math teachers having insane ego is international
@ACuriousMind did you follow what I wrote at all? if not I can explain what I mean by complete the square
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@RyderRude Yes that's why i called they have feeling of apparent weight not mass.
@123 right
@qwerty slice the thread
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Even we don't feel force on us like motion in free fall we don't feel any force of gravity. Until force produce some pressure or stress in our body
09:38
@Mr.Feynman lel. the one I was talking about tonight was a substitute and wasn't that bad at all. my main physicd teacher in HS was a biologist. she couldn't answer a q I had on ohms law/transformers and so I asked an ex electrical engineer maths teacher and she got mad
@naturallyInconsistent we slice the bread kitty!
@123 right
@qwerty claws out
@naturallyInconsistent backs off uhh nice kitty :( pls don't hurt me
@qwerty do u prefer self learning or lectures
@RyderRude self
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09:40
@RyderRude Thanks
@qwerty same. it is efficient and u get more information
@qwerty I don't really have anything to say except to observe that "the curve" is the entire spacetime in 1d, so there isn't really any intuitive difference to me between this threading and slicing in 1d
@ACuriousMind well, maybe that's the case in string theory? I'm not sure what you mean. we are "usually" slicing or threading up 4d, and the curve followed by a particle is a thread or 1D submanifold
@qwerty it has nothing to do with string theory - the relativistic particle action is purely classical
formally it's an action on a 1d spacetime - the "real" spacetime is the target space of the fields
also see time reparametrisation invariance. the configuration space of this action includes time while the "time" parameter is a gauge parameter
09:46
so when you try to "thread" that 1d spacetime, you just get one thread, and that's already the entire space time
but that's fine?
I'm not saying it isn't fine
I'm not sure I follow your point
I'm just saying this oddity might explain why two things that are in general different coincide in this case
hmm
1
Q: Is the einbein the same thing as or related to the threading lapse function?

qwertyIf I understand correctly the einbein can be understood as the component of a one-dimensional metric, along a particle worldline. I'm not so sure of writing it out explicitly, but this seems like it might be: $$-c^2 d\tau^2 = - c^2 e^2 dt^2 \ .$$ To me this seems mathematically and conceptually c...

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09:49
If i have two blocks of same masses connected with a spring , placed on a horizontal frictionless surface.
I suppose itsa yes after all.
but how it fits in with the adm one I guess I'll have to trust you ACM
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We defined this system in terms of center of mass (COM). Is it also possible two define the system position of individual particles like take a coordinates $\Large{(x_1,y_1,z_1,x_2,y_2,z_2,t)}$
@qwerty attacks both the threads and the bread
@naturallyInconsistent please don't slice up my skin kitty D:
actually ACM you are close to convincing me but I can visualise the threading scenario easier
I just don't have a picture of the einbein when you have the slicing
@qwerty are you made of either?
10:04
@naturallyInconsistent they say you are what you eat, and I do consume bread...
@naturallyInconsistent boredpanda.com/why-cats-eat-bread-explained is this you
maybe
Sorry for the ping: @ACuriousMind a cursory Google of "einbein QFT" seems to keep turning up worldline formalism; they integrate out the fermion degrees of freedom and then use Schwinger's trick to convert to fermion loop integrals. These seem to be mostly written by string ppl too. Is there a standard QFT using einbein without eliminating the fermion degrees of freedom?
10:22
Aug 18, 2023 at 15:43, by ACuriousMind
@Sanjana the worldline formalism is pretty much fiction, no one thinks about QFT in that way
You can of course quantize the non-fermionic theory of the free relativistic particle, but it's not a particularly interesting quantum theory
I'd say it's a very interesting theory
10:43
@ACuriousMind Well, IIRC, there was some duality such that, if we can work out all the vacuum diagrams, then it will also contain the solution to any standard QFT. That is, when in the standard formalism we ignore all the vacuum bubble diagrams because the denominator will cancel them off, if we had instead ignored all the connected diagrams and just focused upon getting the vacuum bubbles, a duality exists to get us the usual fare in terms of that. Did I remember correctly?
@ACuriousMind may I ask what the worldline formalism is or should I google it?
@qwerty I just described it~
@naturallyInconsistent oh, I see. yeap it's beyond me :)
@ACuriousMind But that's precisely the opposite of what I wanted. I wanted to see if there is a QFT more in the normal sense except that it had time reparametrisation invariance as in einbeins.
@123 yes
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10:48
Thanks
@qwerty It is surprisingly easy to understand. It is mostly a simple trick by Schwinger to convert the lawn into an integral $\mathrm dy/y$, and then convert that $1/y$ into yet another integral $e^{iyz}\mathrm dz$ and then swap the integrals and get rid of $y$. Then you can expand the resulting integral into classical particles moving around in loops. Sadly, ACM is somewhat implying that these trickery arent useful.
11:05
I'm mostly implying the main practical usage of this formalism is to justify the string perturbation series over worldsheets as its stringy analogue :P
@naturallyInconsistent I'm not exactly sure what that means, but if you turn a theory reparameterization invariant you then have to use BRST to quantize it as it becomes a gauge theory/the Hamiltonian becomes purely constraints, it's not exactly something you want to do to a theory if you can avoid it :P
It's a good exercize for BRST quantization otoh
also the quantization of the relativistic point particle is so full of fucked up things that it's a pretty good tour to see the issues of relativistic quantum theory :p
although it certainly doesn't make it a good theory to use practically
11:20
@ACuriousMind I see, thanks. You have definitely found the correct set of words that is going to successfully spook the kitten away. Very Halloween.
are we allowed to drop f bombs in the chat? no one else was doing it so I didn't wanna get banned for it lol
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A: Are expletives (cursing, swear words or vulgar language) allowed on SE sites?

Jeff AtwoodNo. Using expletives is not acceptable behavior on any Stack Exchange site and is a violation of the Code of Conduct, even on Meta. There are a very small handful of exceptions (such as if you were talking about the word itself on a language site), but in general you should not use expletives any...

Things may be a little more relaxed in some chat rooms, though.
OTOH, a chat room can't have an official policy of permitting swearing. But the room owners etc may not be so strict about enforcing the Code of Conduct regarding swear words, especially when it's obvious to everyone involved that the words aren't being used to attack someone.
@LuckyChouhan not to bring the current mood of the chat down too much, but I thought about what to say: my academic journey was a very long series of unfortunate events and a string of at least one abusive person - he was being academically/intellectually dishonest and gaslighting me on maths/results. I know some of these words overused as hyperbole right now but I don't use them lightly. there was over a year when I couldn't work or think about physics at all
not being able to do physics without blanking out was effing scary. sadly not everyone was shocked: apparently it's common for PhDs and I find that abhorrent.
I want to do something about it, so things arent just a roll of a die for students. but it's not clear what can be done.
I was also fortunate to have wonderful people in my personal life and also a mentor; I realise if I had to be financially self sufficient I would not have completed, let alone get feedback from an examiner that it was one of the best theses they had marked in decades. I only wish everyone had a more level playing field.
11:39
I rarely swear in Stack Exchange chat rooms, but sometimes it's appropriate...
In Connor's second thesis it is stated 'There is no fate but what we make for ourselves.'  Does the routine destroy our creativity or do we lose creativity and fall into the routine?  Anyway, who's up for a road trip!
2
indeed
12:32
@qwerty I'm not banning anyone for saying "fuck" once unless it's in an insult like "fuck you", but if you use it every other sentence there's going to be problems :P
@ACuriousMind How do you feel about using this paper
it's not wrong
@qwerty I once had a physics teacher that had trouble telling $\sin$ and $\cos$ apart
just remember that sin(x) ~ x
You can picture which one it is
it's the one that passes through 0!
I'm talking about something worse, Slereah
I mean in a unit circumference, which is the sin and which is the cos
12:46
@Mr.Feynman maybe the teacher followed a strict rule where they don't memorise anything
but this one is so basic and widely used. it's like refusing to memorise multiplication tables
Maybe sine and cosine should have been named the other way around... But it's a bit too late to change them now, or to reverse the (x, y) convention for 2D coordinates.
long ago, i used to believe that a theory of everything would explain why the multiplication tables are the way they are :P
And to add to the confusion matrix indices are in row, column order.
The history of the word "sine" is a bit convoluted. It was originally from an Indian language, but came into Latin via Arabic. But IIRC there was a misprint / mistranslation involved. Let me check Wiki for details...
@PM2Ring there is actually a system explaining why which of each pair of those functions got the co- prefix. Sadly, that happened to be a pretty bad map onto the frequency of use.
@PM2Ring just use the Simon Clark's youtube video on it. He was overwhelmed by that video being his first meme
(and only. as of now.)
@PM2Ring I confirm. My history is convoluted
13:01
> The modern words "sine" and "cosine" are derived from the Latin word sinus via mistranslation from Arabic
> The word sine is derived, indirectly, from the Sanskrit word jyā 'bow-string' or more specifically its synonym jīvá (both adopted from Ancient Greek χορδή 'string'), due to visual similarity between the arc of a circle with its corresponding chord and a bow with its string (see jyā, koti-jyā and utkrama-jyā). This was transliterated in Arabic as jība, which is meaningless in that language and written as jb (جب).
> Since Arabic is written without short vowels, jb was interpreted as the homograph jayb (جيب), which means 'bosom', 'pocket', or 'fold'.
> When the Arabic texts of Al-Battani and al-Khwārizmī were translated into Medieval Latin in the 12th century by Gerard of Cremona, he used the Latin equivalent sinus (which also means 'bay' or 'fold', and more specifically 'the hanging fold of a toga over the breast').
@naturallyInconsistent Sine corresponds closely to the chords that were used by the ancient Indians, and by Ptolemy, etc. And obviously the names predate the discovery of $e^{i\theta}=\cos(\theta) + i\sin(\theta)$
@PM2Ring I know that. I'm referring to something else.
13:48
When studying the case of an incoming particle towards a potential step or barrier, it seems to me that we equate the concepts of (reflection/transmission/incoming)probability current with the actually incoming/reflecting/transimitting particle current? Why is that? Does it mean that there is a 1 to 1 equivalence between probability current and actual physical current of some quantity ?
@imbAF yes. imagine you are in the pioneers' shoes, trying to make a new theory. Older theories already had such suggestive concepts. Isn't it the normal thing to try it out and see if the new theory accepts the old concept with little changes?
Why is the GF it (zero-temperature) many-body temperature defined with a $N-particle$ "ground state", i.e. the Fermi sea?
I mean, why not with vacuum (0 particle state) like in relativistic QFT
@Mr.Feynman If it's a vacuum, where's the body (let alone many of them)?
@naturallyInconsistent Ok I see, thanks
@ACuriousMind I don't know :P
Then I guess it's just a matter of what is useful in this context
But I mean, you can have $N-1$ particle states
14:14
@Mr.Feynman What I mean is: If you have a condensed matter system like the free electrons in a conductor, then the ground state isn't "the vacuum", it's "all the electrons are in the lowest possible energy state"
If you phrase this in terms of c/a operators the ground state is the "absence of excitations" just like in hep-th QFT, but physically this "absence of excitations" does not mean the absence of particles in that case
Alright, this much is clear. Now, I'm asking this because since we still work in a Fock space, on which c/a act, the vacuum *is* in the space of states, it's just unphysical (?)
I mean, destruction operators do not annihilate the fermi sea (at least those with suitable momenta)
@Mr.Feynman You have to think about the c/a operators differently - as I said, this is about excitations. The creation operator in this many-body conductor context in my example above does not create an electron ex nihilo, it raises an electron from that sea of electrons in the ground state to a higher energy level
the mathematics is exactly the same - you have a ground state and a bunch of c/a operators acting on it - but the physical interpretation of the action of the c/a operators is different
it's why the Dirac sea was even possible as an idea - nothing in the math itself tells you that the ground state is "empty", only that none of the annihilation operators can lower it any further
@ACuriousMind Ok, I think you probably mean the particle/hole transformation
that retains the algebra
14:36
Just thought about it
Do parametrized point particles have retarded and advanced solutions
I guess they would just be the two orientations of curves
I guess there's no fundamental reason why you should pick $\tau = t$ and not $-t$ as a gauge fix
Schweg
14:54
@Slereah but does orientation of the curve affect any predictions?
orientation is not an observable, i think
it is just choices of parameters for the curve
15:11
I think we discussed this here, so I'll mention it again. Regarding the usual argument of QFT for e.g. the vacuum polarization that must have the form
$$\Pi^{\mu\nu}(q)=A(q^2)g^{\mu\nu}+B(q^2)q^{\mu}q^{\nu} \tag{1}$$
Is there any branch of math dealing with this kind of argument? I don't how to better phrase it.

For reference, I'm not asking to explain $(1)$, it's pretty obvious. Just, physics textbooks typically do that as a "guess". So is there any field doing this more systematically?
@Mr.Feynman It's representation theory - you look at the space of all polynomials/tensors in $g$ and $q$ and observe that the spin-2 subrep is spanned by $g$ itself and $q\otimes q$
15:32
22
Q: Hilbert, Gödel, and "God equations" - a 19th century lesson for 21st century physicists?

benIt seems there are a lot of respected physicists appearing on pop-sci programs (discovery channel, science channel, etc.) these days spreading the gospel of "we can know, we must know." Three examples, quickly: 1) Many programs feature Michio Kaku saying that he is on a quest to find an equation...

15:43
@ACuriousMind I'm sorry, spin 2?
@Mr.Feynman two Lorentz indices, that's the spin-2 rep
ah, well, not exactly, but it's the spin-2 + the trace part + ...
I'm pretty sure this argument can be made in these terms
mhhh ok, well, you answered the question
It's one of those things one wants to know without delving too much into :P
16:08
A physicist, an engineer, and a statistician are hunting a deer. They see it in the distance. The physicist calculates a parabolic trajectory, pulls back the bowstring the calculated amount and fires. The arrow lands 3 meters too short. The engineer adds in a fudge factor for air resistance, pulls back the bowstring and fires. The arrow lands 3 meters too long. The statistician yells "we got him!"
16:58
for my stupid page of every formalism for the point particle I'm trying to remember how screw theory works
The formalism that nobody has used outside of France in a century
idk why we love it so much
it wasn't even invented by a Frenchman
it's mostly terrible because most screw theory sources are meant for engineers
17:13
Apparently because of that guy
Richard Martin Edler von Mises (German: [fɔn ˈmiːzəs]; 19 April 1883 – 14 July 1953) was an Austrian scientist and mathematician who worked on solid mechanics, fluid mechanics, aerodynamics, aeronautics, statistics and probability theory. He held the position of Gordon McKay Professor of Aerodynamics and Applied Mathematics at Harvard University. He described his work in his own words shortly before his death as: practical analysis, integral and differential equations, mechanics, hydrodynamics and aerodynamics, constructive geometry, probability calculus, statistics and philosophy. Although best...
 
2 hours later…
19:30
i am wondering where one would get the idea of introducing an einbein into an action?
19:59
Why not, it's an integral on the line
The volume form is the einbein
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