@ACuriousMind yes i mean i already understand all of this logic regarding "quantum computers do stuff faster" and am vaguely familiar with the few existing algorithms that show this. what i dont get is why this extends to saying "quantum computers should be able to simulate any physical process. i just dont see the jump here. i mean even for computers (classical ones), (afaiu) we dont say they can simulate every classical physical process that exists.
thats just not what i thought computers do -- i thought they are computing machines. so i expect that they can perform tasks involving performing computations. but then to extend to what deutsch said seems to require saying that all physics processes can be written in terms of computable tasks. im just not sure why this would be true. especially if we are going for exactness.
i feel like it also implies that there is nothing beyond the quantum that we know, but that is a separate argument. its kind of like the argument that "if we connect enough items and make them talk to eachother like neurons, we would have a conscious brain" and idk thats not compelling to me XD
i guess the nuance is in "make them talk to eachother like neurons"
but even if i say that i believe the world is truly explainable by the quantum we know, i still have a problem w deutsch's thesis, so i guess the first question i raised is the one im most curious about
@SillyGoose ????
the definition of delusion: a false belief or judgment about external reality, held despite incontrovertible evidence to the contrary
Are the negative eigenvalues allowed values for the kinetic energy operator in 1D Qm?And how would one possibly measure these negative kinetic energy eigenvalues?
@Relativisticcucumber I think at least a debatable form of the principle amounts to the following: that not only every physical system can be described by mathematics (an assumption physics more or less always makes) but that at least to arbitrary accuracy the computable (by whatever kind of universal computing machine) subset of math suffices for this
@Arjun isn't the "kinetic energy operator" (positively) proportional to $\hat{\vec{p}}\cdot \hat{\vec{p}}$?
more precisely, what negative eigenvalues are you expecting $\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\vec{\hat{p}} \cdot \vec{\hat{p}}$ to have?
is there a reasonable reason that using grand canonical ensemble to "find" the bose-einstein distribution works?
i.e., the procedure 1. suppose you have a grand canonical ensemble of one species of particle. 2. write the ensemble in the occupation basis. 3. take the expected value of the $k$th occupation number, this expression takes on the form of the bose-einstein distribution.
@SillyGoose Consider the kinetic energy eigenvalue equation ,$-\frac{\hbar^2}{2m}\frac{d^2\psi}{dx^2}=K\psi$,now $\forall$ real K,we have $\psi=exp(i\sqrt\frac{2mK}{\hbar^2}x)$ as an eigenfunction with the eigenvalue K,note this is true even for K<0. Hence the kinetic energy operator also has negative eigenvalues, my og question was if the eigenstates corresponding to these negative eigenvalues are allowed in physics and how one would possibly measure them.
i think its like he writes $p_k(n_k)$ and realizes these are the same $k$s
to be simple he just writes it as $k$
since $k$ fully characterizes that term as written
but what this represents conceptually is summing over $n_k$ so then we still have the remaining $k$ leftover (which is what i mean when i say hes only summing over one $k$, the $k$ on the $n_k$) so the $k$ on the $p$ is left
in what ur saying are you also saying that the $k$ in the $n_k$ in the argument of $p_k(n_k)$ is getting summed over?
if so i agree
wait no
summing over $k$ for $n_k$ is not the same as summing over $n_k$ for fixed $k$
because summing over $k$ for $n_k$ is summing over occupation numbers for all $k$ energy levels. but what we wish to do is sum over possible occupation numbers for a fixed energy level, i.e., sum over the index $_{n_k}$
$\sum_k n_k = n_1 + n_2 +...$ is not the same as $\sum_{n_k} n_k = 0 + 1 + 2 + ...$
i mean what i said originally that we write it as $p_{n_k}$ and sum over $n_k$ but i think he is just realizing that $p_k(n_k)$ uses the same $k$ so writing it simpler idk i mean i agree that what we r summing over is $n_k$
why is the energy gap hypothesis necessary? if it is not met for $E_1$, then we just have a degenerate ground state. Then, there could be an energy gap $E_2 - E_1 > 0$ in which case (2.23) still holds with the index starting at $k =2$
@lucabtz it means giving birth to lots of further work
seminal as in like a seed which gives rise to more and more, etc.
@Relativisticcucumber oh that is a possibility. but i would personally confuse myself btwn energy level labels and occupation number labels for each energy label.
@Relativisticcucumber yeah it isnt spoken, it is just studied. But translation is difficult. a tipical assignment or test is translating a small excerpt of latin text from some latin author (often Cicero, Seneca, Livius, Ceasar, etc.). It is typically around 20 lines and you are oftne given more than an hour to do it
so most people will not be able to speak it if it takes more than an hour to translate twenty lines
it does teach a lot about how grammar works though, im mostly happy i studied latin
@SillyGoose the mainly studied books here are I Promessi Sposi by A Manzoni and The Divine Commedy by Dante, not really the Aeneid
@SillyGoose you are correct. It is a sum over $n_k$ here
@Relativisticcucumber that is just confusing notation. Note that after correctly summing over $n_k$ for fixed $k$, there is a next sum over $k$, so if you do not carefully so this, there will be too much confusion.
@SillyGoose It is just nicer for exposition. You are correct, if the ground state is $r$-fold degenerate, then the excited states will just start their sum from $k=r$ instead of $k=1$, and the argument will continue as-is.
@PM2Ring I was hoping that it would be closed as duplicate and later system auto-deleted. Sadly, now we have someone else giving an answer to this. — naturallyInconsistent35 mins ago
@naturallyInconsistent That doesn't work so well. ;) If you suspect it's a dupe, look for a dupe target.
It's ok to post comments correcting misconceptions in the question, if that's likely to lead to the OP improving the question.
High rep members posting partial answers in comments sets a bad example. We have too many answers-in-comments on this site. Such comments bypass the normal voting machinery.
Some members are chronic offenders, and they use comments to post stuff that's not quite correct, or non-mainstream. We really don't want to encourage that behaviour.
BTW, the system doesn't usually delete closed dupe questions. IIRC, they need to be unanswered, and have a negative score. Dupe questions aren't intrinsically bad, unless they're really obvious dupes showing no prior research.
The point of dupe closure is to consolidate all the answers into one place, so they can be easily found, and easily compared. And so that they form a single pool that people can vote on. OTOH, that strategy isn't foolproof, if there are a bunch of old popular answers that are wrong. That causes issues on SO, but it's less likely to occur here on Physics.SE.
@MoreAnonymous he seems to be arguing for a completely relational universe
depending on what kinds of relations are allowed, this can mean a completely mathematical universe. category theory, for e.g., only cares about relations
i doubt theyre arguing for a category-theory type universe tho. they probably mean more general relations than in mathematics
but then the downside is that the philosophy becomes vague, as u cant know what exactly theyre talking about anymore, as is the case with most of philosophy
How does category theory make sense of units and dimensions? Like its one think to say a scalar field its another to say a scalar field of units kelvin
@RyderRude Then can't the k<0 solutions be used to form a basis for square integrable functions?Since apparantly they are eigenstates of the kinetic energy operator should they also not belong to the basis functions set?
note that the inverse of the Laplace transform is still an integral over complex exponentials, rather than real exponentials. it's just that there's also a decaying factor. so one wud hav to allow complex eigenvalues for this
@RyderRude Why can't the same theorem that guarantees that k>0 solutions form an eigenbasis used to show that k<0 solutions also work?
I don't understand why k<0 solutions are not legitimate enough to be considered as basis..afaik all eigenfunctions of an operator belong to the basis set right?
@Arjun ive never seen a rigorous proof of the theorem, but intuitively, any reasonable linear combination of real exponentials wud not be a square integrable function becuz real exponentials grow without bound
consider a finite degenerate spectrum. you do not add the entire degenerate subspace to your basis. only the minimal amount to form a complete basis. however, every element of the degenerate subspace is an eigenstate of the operator.
i mean to correct the general statement you made. also, i believe the kinetic energy operator is degenerate, but that doesn't really change anything about the question you are asking. i just mean to point out the general fact i did
@Arjun note that "eigenfunction" is, by definition, something that lies in the hilbert space. so the momentum operator doesnt really have eigenfunctuons in the first place
but the complex exponential basis expansion works out because of the Fourier inversion theorem
it is not a "basis" in the strict sense..it is called a rigged basis @Arjun
there is an interesting observation that states should really be normalizable and not just square-integrable. but there is some math result(s) which allow one to be sloppy with the language
the zero function is a trivial example of a square-integrable function that cannot be a state, yet is square-integrable
So to sum it up..we won't have pure complex exponentials since they are non normalizable ,we will only have square integrable combinations of them.And k<0 solutions NEVER produce a square integrable functions..so one never measures negative kinetic energy since exponentials are never present
@Arjun also, the complex exponentials form a complete basis. so, any physical state u consider would have a Fourier transform spectrum with real momenta
If you allow $K < 0$, then your wave function is going to diverge as $x$ increases at some limit, so it's not going to admit a probability interpretation to allow such solutions, this is different to the non-normalizability which has a physical interpretation unlike the diverging solutions
your function could be $0$ everywhere except some "local" set $(a, b)$ where $a,b \in \mathbb{R}$. in this case you don't need to integrate outside of this "local" region since the contribution to the integral will just be $0$.
@RyderRude If I understand it correctly..complex exponentials don't belong to the hilbert space..they belong to an extension called rigged hilbert space..but they somehow span all vectors in hilbert space?
If you have a free particle, it can be anywhere, including at infinity, there is no way you can describe a particle spending time at infinity with normalizable wave functions, you need these non-normalizable wave functions i.e. it is physically incorrect to do what rigor tells you to do and demand normalizable eigenfunctions
@Arjun but there r some subtleties with applying the Fourier inversion theorem on the whole L^2(R) space. see the "conditions on functions" section en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fourier_inversion_theorem
@Arjun yes, but there r subtlties with them spanning all of $L^2(R)$ like in the link i gave. the theorem more nicely applues to Schwartz functions which is a subspace
but it applies nicely to any physical states u wud consider. so any physical state wud be spanned by complex exponentials
@Arjun if you are interested, there is a nice book called "Quantum mechanics" by Leslie E. Ballentine. the first chapter briefly introduces rigged Hilbert spaces (among other things) and the textbook is nice overall.
@RyderRude oh..so for all physical states that I'd encounter ..I can basically not worry about these subtleties right? That sounds greatly relieving lol
@Arjun to be clear, some trivial real exponentials combinations can sum to square integrable functions. i think the main crux is just that : 1. negative KE requires momentum measurements to give imaginary results 2. the fourier inversion theorem says the K>=0 form a basis, so no more vectors are required in the linear combination
@RyderRude yes you are correct for k<0,we get imaginary p values..I should've checked this initially : ) and since momentum operator is hermitian and hence only has real eigenvalues..negative k values shouldn't be allowed..thanks for the help
@RyderRude Oh!Do you have any example at hand for $\sum Ae^kx+Be^-kx$ being square integrable ,because I can't think of any A's and B's for which the above sum is square integrable
@Arjun but i just thought that Taylor series can manage the growth of polynomilas using mixed signed coefficients and factorials, so maybe real exponential integrals can use similar tricks to achieve it....but im dont hav a concrete example
but most importantly we dont hav a general basis expansion theorem with real exponentials. Laplace transform can use exponential growth, but its inverse is not an integral over real exponentials
@PM2Ring thanks. that's much more clearer than what I had thought it was meant to be like. On myow end, it is more of a case of itchy hands: cannot help but type some throwaway answer-in-comment than not. Sigh.
@Arjun Good university lectures and textbooks will cover some properties of what constitutes good solutions of the Schrödinger equation. In particular, the 2nd order derivative governs the curvature of the solutions for any $E$ and $V$ region, and the inability to make $\psi\to0$ at the infinite limits is scrutinised. Your questions here are all in that vein.
I skimmed the Education section the other day, it didn't look ridiculous (unlike the physics areas), I was wondering whether the Chemistry section was full of nonsense or not I wasn't sure...
This must be discussed somewhere in the main site...but can't find it: given a canonical transformation, how do we find which type of generating functions can't produce such canonical transformations?
@Sanjana you'd have a far better experience and ease if you simply consulted Goldstein. The flow is the opposite: you check the 4 generating functions, and discover that each one fails to cover a certain type of canonical transformations.
The of course operator seems to be so called because if an inference is true, it is true after arbitrarily many evaluations
In the QI case that corresponds to the fact that coherent states are classical-ish and can be cloned, and therefore can be used multiple times in a quantum circuit
@naturallyInconsistent Ofcourse I have seen that. It's just that there's no systematic discussion of the issue. E.g. If I am given a canonical transformation, I wouldn't wanna waste time in choosing which generating functions to use. I think it depends on the invertibility of the transformations... In principle I could try to derive them on my own...but I thought... Why bother when u have pse :p
Boltzmann got so much hate for his ideas I think is part of the reason why. idk about ehrenfest. I think they were speculated to have bipolar but that's just random guessing at some point
@Obliv No, that quote is very standard for stat therm textbooks and lecture courses
@Obliv There was a LOT of physics pushback against atomism. At the time, chemists had already long since accepted atomism as fact whereas physicists were still deluding themselves that classical continuum could have a chance.
@Obliv and your point is? I mean, by that point, it is more of whatever is nice and the prof likes, goes. There is presumably some simpler lecture module or textbook covering the simpler parts and all the different versions of Planck's Law and so on.
I was looking for an introduction to the issue raised by classical physics approach to blackbody radiation but it's ok the crux of the issue is u will get infinite energy by your choice of energy function for the partition function
if u dont set it up with multiples of h or whatever
I think because you get 1+e+e+e+...
if u take each antinode as kT energy
I guess u wouldnt have e^0 as a mode so just infinite e+e+...
Which I dont even know why we'd have kT as the assigned energy for an antinode but whatever I guess that's the amplitude of the classical E-field
I am not sure what it is you are trying to say. I have no idea what is the premise; I do not know what would 1+e+e+e+... correspond to, nor "each anti-node as kT energy", etc.
I was just saying that in the classical picture if we consider $Z = \sum\limits_s e^{-\beta E(s)}$ with the energy of each mode being $\frac{f}{2}Nk_BT$ you'd have $Z = 1 + e + e + ...$ (where 0 energy is the "ground" state)
which leads to $\overline{E} = -\frac{1}{Z}\frac{\partial Z}{\partial \beta} = \frac{\infty^2}{\infty}$ or something
@Obliv In old NR classical mechanics the KE is $\frac12mv^2$, which is then inserted into Maxwell-Boltzmann distribution, looking like $Z=\int e^{-\frac12\beta mv^2}\mathrm dv$, and then you get the $\frac12k_BT$ for this
@SirCumference I'm not sure about the usage outside of US (soccer) and UK (football) and where the rest of the world stands. For example, here we just use the italian word for it, which is "calcio"
And what in the US is football is called "American football" I guess