@ClaudioMenchinelli you need to learn to recognise when pushing through is just counterproductive and just go get some rest.
@Semiclassical correct. But it might well be wonderfully approximated by fluid dynamics predictions and then adding an uncertainty band due to the friction being able to create pressure differential of either sign.
mostly i want to be able to (somewhat) accurately communicate why jumping in a pool is safe while getting engulfed in a grain silo can be lethal, despite them being similar bulk densities
but that can wait until i get to the point of mentioning viscosity
is the crossover of mathematical fields a new phenomena? for instance, using groups to characterize topological spaces or using lie algebras to characterize lie groups
consider a correlation amplitude $C(t)$. assume the spectrum of the system of interest is quasi-continous such that we can approximate $C(t)$ with an integral over the appropriate interval of energy values.
I don't understand the argument sakurai runs through to deduce behavior of the approximate $C(t)$.
In particular, it seems like Sakurai is saying that i) rapid oscillations $\implies$ cancellation, ii) we assume the energy spectrum is peaked with some width, so that the contributions to $C(t)$ are localized to some interval centered at the peak, iii) if the interval for which there are not rapid oscillations is much smaller than the interval of the width, then there will not be much contribution to $C(t)$
I am uncertain about 1) does saying the energy distribution is peaked mean that we only, qualitatively, care about what the distribution looks like at the peak and within the interval of the width of the peak? 2) does rapidly oscillated imply cancellation? 3) Is the condition $\lvert E - E_0 \lvert \approx \hbar /t$ the condition of not rapidly oscillating?
@SillyGoose (i) is true. i.e. (2) is true too. Read the wiki link at the bottom, but first let's talk things through. (ii) Yes, Sakurai is trying to get you to consider a case like this. (iii) is true too. (3) is true. (1) is false. Equation (2.72) is true regardless of which $E_0$ you pulled out; However, it is obvious that if you pulled out a $E_0$ far from the peak $E_0^{\text{best}}$ then you cannot see what the argument is about. en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Riemann%E2%80%93Lebesgue_lemma
After all, since by assumption the initial energy eigenstates constituting the state being scrutinised is peaked around $E_0^{\text{best}}$, the contribution from a small window near $E_0\neq E_0^{\text{best}}$ will be tiny, and then in the argument you cannot see why the Equation (2.72) will extract out by itself a $E_0^{\text{best}}-E_0$ and return you the same results. Hence why Sakurai's argument only starts by considering $E_0=E_0^{\text{best}}$
@SillyGoose Lie algebra and Lie groups are the same theory... it is not a new phenomena... However, why would you be expecting that mathematicians would not try to use existing tools and knowledge when exploring new realms?
@naturallyInconsistent hm i guess im confused how the assumptions sakurai states tells us that a distribution with a peak with width has most contribution around the peak
for instance i can have this distribution
while perhaps what is in mind is somethign more like
hmmm interesting :P is there a reason the distribution should be considered as being so benign? do you know of another resource that discusses this approximation in more detail or perhaps an example of the realistic physical scenario sakurai alludes to
@SillyGoose I mean, if you had this kind of weird peaking initial state, then C(t) will still be near one if the "width of acceptance" $\hslash/t$ is wide enough to take all of them into account, i.e. short times. After a while, of course, this width of acceptance will shrink until it omits some of the other peaks, leaving you with $0<C(t)\ll1$
@naturallyInconsistent one other meandering thought: would one still have something akin to Archimedes' principle in the grain case? my gut would be that it's still there, but much smaller than the frictional forces
Essentially, what this "self-correlation" argument implies, is that Schrödinger evolution automatically makes initial states into purer and purer energy eigenstates simply by you waiting longer and longer before using the states. That is, if you want to prepare a pure energy eigenstate for use in an experiment, you just have to wait longer for it to self-purify. Extremely realisitic.
@Semiclassical It must be there, and it has to work no matter what. Weak or strong friction, we still need to obey classical mechanics.
@Slereah Yes exactly...The problem is that I just found two references which seem to point out different motions which can be interpreted as dilations!
i feel like the first chapter of sakurai is wonderful and the rest of the book is so opaquely written...
I do not quite understand why the propagator is not introduced immediately as the Green's function for the (wave function) Schrödinger equation. Instead, we follow a very circuitous path to the result...
he begins with a general initial ket with time evolution operator applied to it
then supposes existence of an operator $A$ such that $[A, H] = 0$ where $H$ is the hamiltonian, so we have access to a basis $\{a'\}$
then uses the completeness relation to expand the time evolved initial state $\lvert \alpha (t, t_0) \rangle$. then, writes this in the position basis, i.e. as a wave function. then does a bunch of relabeling and calls something the propagator
i feel like the fact that what sakurai calls the propagator is the green's function for the (wave function) schrodinger equations should be obvious, but i am trying to see how it should be obvious
if we are interested in finding the green's function for the schrodinger, then we want to know how an individual position eigenstate $\lvert x \rangle$ evolves in time
this is $U(t, t_0) \lvert x \rangle$, which written as a wave function is $\langle x ' \lvert U(t,t_0) \lvert x \rangle$
@RyderRude i feel like i am missing something because the two sentence argument i wrote above is satisfactory to me
@SillyGoose Presumably because Sakurai generally takes a somewhat more algebraic approach and hence doesn't want to "spoil" this with the theory of Green's functions - here, the propagator is more seen as the kernel of the time evolution operator. Of course the two viewpoints are equivalent, but it's perfectly normal that one text does not consider all possible viewpoints
you can also use the easier technique : $U(t)=\sum _{E} |E\rangle \langle E | e^{-iEt}$. to get $U$ in the $x$ basis, just substiutr $|E\rangle =\psi _E(x)$ in this.
@SillyGoose 1. What do you mean by using groups for topological spaces? 2. I'd argue that the conceptual separation of math into so many somewhat distinct subfields is the modern phenomenon here, not the existence of connections between them
i must say Sakurai shud emphasize that this is is just a technique to compute $U(t)$ and is by no means general. it doesnt work when the Hamiltonian is time dependent
so defining $U(t)$ using eigenvector stuff is not the way to go
it's like when books call the eigenvalue problem as "time independent Schrodinger eqn", when it is just a computation technique from Linear algebra
hm wait but aren't we interested in green's functions to solve inhomogenous diffeqs, not homogenous ones such as
the LHS here
@ACuriousMind to my understanding i would consider the following as an example for 1.: the fundamental group of based topological space will tell you about its topological properties. but the fundamental group is an algebraic object
@RyderRude i believe he mentions that the hamiltonian is assumed to be time independent. though i think the text is not as careful to talk about whether degenerate or nondegenerate spectrums are considered but i might be mistaken
for instance, in classical mechanics one resorts to green's functions not to solve the simple harmonic oscillator, but to solve the harmonic oscillator with an arbitrary driving or damping force
okay i think this is my question. why should we find the green's function of the wave schrodinger equation? As opposed to straight up solving the wave schrodinger equation. To my understanding, solving for the green's function will let you solve the homogenous and inhomogenous schrodinger equation, but this is more than we are wanting to do.
in addition, why do we not solve for the green's function of $\mathcal{L} \equiv -\frac{\hbar}{2m}\nabla^2 + \frac{\partial}{\partial t}$? Then, we can introduce a potential $V(x)$ as the "driving term", solving the schrodinger equation in general using the same method but i guess making use of the ability to solve inhomogenous equations
@SillyGoose I would see this another way: Topologically, we just define the fundamental group as the set of non-contractible loops. It just so happens to also have a natural group structure, but there is nothing "fundamentally" algebraic about it from the Pov of elementary topology.
@ACuriousMind okay i think i see maybe. so sakurai is not incorrect in calling the propagator a green's function due to duhamel's principle, but it seems incredibly misleading because i) we do not need to actually solve what green's functions exist to solve, ii) strictly speaking we want to solve the schrödinger equation, not for this "impulse schrödinger", iii) duhamel's principle is not really something to internalize as a general truth between what people might call propagators and what is a gf
@SillyGoose at least there is an actual meaning to the usage of the word here compared to people calling n-point functions "Green's functions" which they definitely aren't for $n>2$ :P
so what would one call the propagator (which is a collection of solutions paramterized by $x$) in the math world? is it just a "basis" for the homogenous solution space?
@SillyGoose it's just the linear operator that evolves any initial condition forward or backward time. in $U(x,t;x',t')$, the final time can be smaller than the initial time. but if u consider $G=U(x,t;x't')\theta (t-t')$ so that G can only evolve a wavefunction forward in time, then $G$ is the Green's function of $i\frac{\partial}{\partial t}-H$
"By contrast, a chaotic space is so excessive in its cohesion that any point can be moved to any other point without any 'effort', that is, with no attention paid to the nature of the space-'time' which might be used to parameterize the motion."
@SillyGoose 1) solving tiSE gives you energies and wavefunctions. Having the propagator is one way to get them, see Feynman Hibbs doing the opposite argument of the usual $U=\sum_E\left|E\right>e^{-iEt}\left<E\right|$ that combines energies and wavefunctions into the propagator. 2) solving tdSE for arbitrary wavefunctions, is not illuminating, unless we do it via propagators. Propagators are just useful in themselves, evolving any initial wavefunction to any final wavefunction as you like.
3) Sakurai is obviously trying to make the transition from QM to QFT smoother. That is also why scattering is treated in depth in the text.
@Mr.Feynman That's exactly what's wrong with it - this usage of "Green's function" has nothing to do with the mathematical definition of a Green's function. But as you say it's standard in physics, I have no hope of changing this anytime soon :P
In mathematics, especially in abstract algebra, a quasigroup is an algebraic structure resembling a group in the sense that "division" is always possible. Quasigroups differ from groups mainly in that the associative and identity element properties are optional.
A quasigroup with an identity element is called a loop.
== Definitions ==
There are at least two structurally equivalent formal definitions of quasigroup. One defines a quasigroup as a set with one binary operation, and the other, from universal algebra, defines a quasigroup as having three primitive operations. The homomorphic image of...
ok so my theorem is incorrect. using the three properties, i may identify each element with a permutation of group elements but the multiplication of the elements is not identified with a multiplication of the permutation matrices
I know the version of Frobenius theorem formulated in terms of involutive distributions. How is it related to the version $\mathrm{ker}\phi$ is integrable iff $\phi\wedge d\phi=0$ (i.e. the hypersurface version)
Do you have a clearer explanation of Carroll'a argument (concerning Birkhoff theorem and foliations) quoted in this question? Basically I'm asking the same thing as OP since I don't consider the accepted answer compelling enough
@ClaudioMenchinelli using the notation you like more, they just saying that these are operators of the form $T_1\otimes\mathbb{I}$ and $\mathbb{I}\otimes T_2$ that act on $\lvert r_1\rangle\otimes \lvert r_2\rangle$
Regarding the two-body problem, I know that the potential depends upon the distance between the two bodies $r = |\mathbf{r_1} -\mathbf{r_2}|$ only. If I wanna prove that the Hamiltonian is translationally invariant then I need to show that $ [\hat{T}_1(\mathbf{u}),\hat{T}_2(\mathbf{u}),\hat{V}(r) ]$. The Problem being: how do I determine how the potential operator acts on a generic position ket $|\mathbf{r_1,r_2}\rangle$?
". However, the theorem does not hold for algebraic integers.This failure of unique factorization is one of the reasons for the difficulty of the proof of Fermat's Last Theorem. "
position and momentum operators do not commute, but, regarding the two-particle problem, if I consider the position operator of a single particle $x_{i1}$ and the momentum of the second one $p_{j2}$ then those two must commute
I’ve tried summing up the commutation relations for the two-body problem, could someone assure me that those are correct before I go on, I hate the notation adopted by the book:$$ [r_{i}^{I},r_j^{J}]=0, [p_{i}^{I},p_j^{J}]=0, [r_{i}^{I},p_j^{J}]=i\hbar\delta_{ij}\delta_{IJ}, I,J=1,2 \text{ and } i,j=1,2,3$$