I get why $\dot q$ and $q$ are present in Lagrangian, but yesterday, we were discussing why $q$ and $\dot q$ are not functions of $t$ in the $L$. One of the reasons was if they depend on $t$, then EL won't be able to do partial derivative bcause $L$ is a function of $t$
We all undserstood this reason, but then I saw Qmechanics answer and it seems like he describes second reason/motivation why in L, $q$ and $\dot q$ can't be dependent on $t$. His reasoning is initial condition thing. https://physics.stackexchange.com/a/7802/366606 ("on one hand")