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01:23
@nickbros123 no, you have to have the volume element that you are integrating over be an infinitesimal. Instead, the minimum volume you can integrate over is a unit cell. You can displace the integration volume smaller than the unit cell, but you integrate over a unit cell chunk centred upon the centre of the integration volume. Then you can see the smoothened variation of the charge density around the unit cell.
 
2 hours later…
03:35
is $U(N)/U(1) \cong SU(N)$?
I feel like yes. modding out by $U(1)$ eliminates any phase factors
and then my actual question is then is the complex stiefel manifold $V_1(\mathbb{C}^N) \cong SU(N)$?
oops send $1 \mapsto (N-1)$ in the second equation
dimensions check out
 
2 hours later…
05:30
Yeah you do have the short exact sequence
$$SU(N) \to U(N) \to U(1)$$
Although I forget if there isn't any extra factor
@naturallyInconsistent but aren't unit cells supposed to contain only a handful of molecules? We learn in solid chemistry that they contain at Max 4 atoms. Tell me one thing @naturallyInconsistent , the averaging of the charge density function, does it happen over the size of the unit cell( in Lorenz picture)
I vaguely remember that there's a U(2) theory of electroweak and that one differs by a quotient from the usual SU(2) x U(1) IIRC
@nickbros123 It does not matter how many atoms there are in a primitive unit cell, as long as you have the full translational symmetry, then you just need to average any integer multiple of one primitive unit cell's worth and the averaging will be sufficient to be correct, so that any variation will really be macroscopic.
The averaging of the charge density function is not over the size of the unit cell in the Lorentz scheme because we tend to choose nice shapes for the hole in the Lorentz scheme. That is, the inner cavity is usually chosen to be a sphere, and then one unit cell is never spherically symmetric enough for this to work.
06:01
@naturallyInconsistent ok, I get what ur saying in that the integration volume must be of a particular size whilst the volume element is microscopically infinitesimal, which is fine. The interpretation works easily in this case as $\rho simply is not varying over a size of a unit cell$.
But when it comes to e field, the interpretation is lost and full subscription to math kicks in
At any rate I seem to have, based on what you are saying continually, an immense amount of misconceptions and misunderstandings of the entire averaging game
@nickbros123 you and your LaTeX mishaps
@nickbros123 I would also have to point out that this transition from micro to macro fields is considered so difficult that it is only ever taught properly in graduate level physics, and so your troubles are not just due to your fault
@naturallyInconsistent oh sorry, I'm on my phone, where I can't read in true latex fashion what I'm typing. In fact I've learnt to just read formulas in their naked form, like \rho \frac etc
@naturallyInconsistent but undergrads are taught about auxilary fields $D$ and $H$ , polarisation $P$ and all that. This stuff without knowing about macroscopic fields? Seems pretty wrong
06:20
What is happening is that $\rho_\text{micro}$ is varying wildly inside a unit cell, and that means that your E field is also wildly varying inside a unit cell. We really only want a smoothened function that can match with what Maxwell intuitively guessed that a smooth material would be doing, namely that $\rho_\text{macro}$ should be almost always zero and slowly smoothly varying over many unit cells, except maybe at boundaries.
@nickbros123 It is very wrong. The more I learn about electrodynamics, the less I think we should even be entertaining D and H and P and M, and I mean this even for graduates. These things are just incredibly badly defined and a continual source of headaches. We should still have macroscopic smoothed fields and so forth, but we should only have many different versions of E and B, not weird things flying around all the time.
@nickbros123 I can read LaTeX raw too.
06:34
@Slereah any idea how to solve the latest GR question I asked on PSE?
07:04
Shouldn't it just be the continuation of the vector field on the boundary
I think by continuity it should also be a Killing vector field on the metric of the boundary
For every continuous function you have some sequence $(p_n)$ so that if $p_n$ converges to $p$, $f(p_n) \to f(p)$
Just try that with the Killing equation?
Just have your sequence converge to the boundary
@SillyGoose Yes, because $\mathrm{U}(N)\mapsto \mathrm{U}(1), A\mapsto \mathrm{det}(A)$ is a surjective group homomorphism with kernel $\mathrm{SU}(N)$ and so the isomorphism theorems yield $\mathrm{U}(N)/\mathrm{U}(1)\cong \mathrm{SU}(N)$
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07:27
Hello Everyone...
Or does it go away from the quotient
@Slereah Note that you cannot invert quotients: $A/B\cong C$ does not imply $A \cong B\times C$
Alas
Deep down I want manifold quotients to work like divisions
the $\mathbb{Z}_2$ is because in $\mathrm{SU}(2)\times \mathrm{U}(1)$, you have that $(g,\phi)$ and $(-g,-\phi)$ represent the same $\mathrm{U}(2)$ element
08:05
do any of yall use julia
i feel like i have been spoiled with the ease of use of jupyter notebook but alas it seems python is too limited
@SillyGoose have it installed; just totally no time to even start it up, sigh.
figuring out how to get these things to work in the first place always takes a few hours for me lol
julia was no exception xD i had installed the wrong mac version :P
@Slereah thanks
amazing what can be done on a computer :P
Important math question : Is a bracket in the abstract noted by $[-,-]$ or $[\cdot, \cdot]$
I've been using both so far
08:13
Hmmm too deep for my prowess
:P
I'm also being a bit indecisive on how to denote a field
is it k or F???
I think probably F because there's already a lot of k's
my vote is $F$
and my vote is $[\cdot, \cdot]$ heh
I'm thinking - actually for this one
There's already a lot of cdots too
What I really need is more alphabets
You need to invent language!
just use inter universal Teichmuller theory notation
08:39
@Slereah You just need Chinese. Millions of characters. You won't need to reuse any symbol.
this is what u are missing out on in julia
I did include two emojis so far
🐍🐟
JIGGGLYYYYPUUFFFF
@Slereah I've only seen the $[\cdot, \cdot]$ version so far
@SillyGoose unicode names all fun and games until you've had to debug a problem where someone accidentally added a zero-width space to a variable name so var and var were different objects and then you long to return to the purity of the blessed ASCII
08:52
You have to give them appropriate names, course
What's the sites current stance on resource rec questions
@nickbros123 Remember to check existing questions on the same topic
@ACuriousMind This is usually only a problem for languages like Python, and not a problem for statically typed languages. Still, code environments really ought to keep unicode at bay. A way to show the hidden unicode will be helpful.
@nickbros123 I just flew a few books on the topic; However, my luggage was not big enough to bring the most important two that would be definitely of help. I did bring the T C Choy, though, and that is fun.
@naturallyInconsistent I mean, it can still take an annoyingly long time to figure out why you're getting a syntax error, but sure at least you don't only find this at runtime with static languages.
In any case most languages have tools to forbid non-ASCII in their source code even if they support Unicode so this is an easily solved problem
@ACuriousMind That is partly why Im super olde skool and using LaTeX to denote most of the stuff that doesn't have to be unicode, and all.
09:12
The way gamma matrices "transform" $S\gamma^\mu S^{-1}=\Lambda_\nu{}^{\mu}\gamma^\nu$ looks like the adjoint rep of the Lorentz group. Is there a way to connect these things or to explain the gamma matrices relation in terms of the adjoint rep?
I mean, it has to be related somehow through spin/pin groups
Or the fact that the commutators of gamma matrices furnish a representation of the generators of LG
Check out how the Clifford group works mb
maybe
@Mr.Feynman I mean that's not the adjoint rep
that's just the vector rep
the adjont rep is on the commutators $[\gamma^\mu,\gamma^\nu]$
09:25
@ACuriousMind That's the Lorentz algebra, yes. Sorry, I was comparing (not saying it is) it to the adjoint rep of the Poincaré algebra of which we've discussed in the past i.e. how $P^\mu$ tranforms under such rep
which is like a vector of course :P
For spinor reason I looked into projective clifford algebras and apparently a lot of it is done by video game people
yes, this is similar but different
It is apparently a very practical tool in game engines
@Mr.Feynman Im one of those rare unicorns with a totally different way of looking at physics. If you look at the Dirac spinor from the point of view of GA, then it kinda makes sense that, since the spinor would be a rotor, it would rotate the gamma matrices (which in this case is to be interpreted as an axis frame of the observer). Then their Lorentz transform would drop out.
@Slereah When you unify spheres with planes, circles with lines, so that collision algorithms become deterministic as if reduced to quadratic formula, it is no wonder that game engines would want to play with them.
@naturallyInconsistent If GA=Geometric algebra I'm afraid I can't follow that now but good to know
09:29
@Mr.Feynman yes
I just wanted to find out if you could have a spin structure for any manifold if you're willing to drop enough stuff
Even pinors aren't guaranteed on any manifold
weird question but does bread count as a fruit
because it's made of grains and grains are a type of fruit
i guess it is similar to that question
@SirCumference do you think ketchup is a fruit?
(or a vegetable)
09:33
@ACuriousMind that's a good point
i guess that makes bread a product of fruits rather than a fruit
the video game people seem to call pseudoscalars antiscalars
10:04
@naturallyInconsistent I remember u speaking about effective medium theory, I guess it's one of those 2 books?
10:17
@nickbros123 yes
10:55
@SillyGoose I did try Julia it's quite nice
 
1 hour later…
11:56
do you buy spirituality things like a unified consciousness?
@naturallyInconsistent afaik the rotors correspond to operators rather than spinors (which are state vectors)
GA does not give u any replacement for state vectors
 
2 hours later…
13:49
Using some � emojis for the Schiehallion experiment
To do the Schiehallion experiment they apparenly straight up split the mountain into ten pages of polyhedrons and then just summed the gravitational contribution of all of them
 
2 hours later…
16:04
is time travel likely possible in our universe? if yes, then what kind
the block universe kind or the changing-timeline kind
i think some GR spacetimes allow for block universe time travel
but is there anything in physics which hints at changing-the-past time travel?
in MWI the worlds are non interacting, so this forbids timeline jumping time travel
so MWI does not hint that kind of time travel, i think
16:18
ok this article too only mentions GR and MWI as the main candidates
in GR, u get the block universe time travel. in MWI, u get no time travel except for in a modification of MWI called "Interacting MWI"
but "Interacting MWI" involves modifying Quantum Mechanics
it has been proposed by physicist David Deutsch according to wikipedia
 
1 hour later…
Mad
Mad
17:44
@ACuriousMind help me sensi
i am wondering why he is keeping the a constant while varying b
its about the angular momentum and the eigenvalkues of j^2 and j_z
my assumption is it that the ket $ j_+ \vert a , b > $ is an eigenket of j^2 with a as an eigenvalue and an erigenket of j_z with an eigenvalue of b + h
thus justifying writing it as a new ket, that keeps a constant
@Mad btw you can use \rangle and \langle for < >
Mad
Mad
Oh didnt know thanks!
123
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Hello everyone...
@Mad this is correct
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What happen if direction of motion is perpendicular to direction of motion of moving object with constant velocity?
17:56
i asked acm ab this section of sakurai awhile ago hehe
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I know it only change direction not magnitude of velocity. But i have a confusion related to projectile motion.
@Mad my transcript after the discussion lol
@123 motion perpendicular to direction of motion??
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@Amit Hi. Sorry. Force is perpendicular to the direction of motion.
@123 So $\mathbf{\dot{v}}\cdot\mathbf{v}=0$... prove that it implies $||\mathbf{v}||$ is constant
I don't understand what is the confusion
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18:00
If I throw an object horizontally from the building it has constant horizontal velocity $V_{ox}$ throughout his journey. Its initial vertical velocity $V_oy = 0$ which increases continuously and after 1 second it becomes $V_y = 9.8 \frac{m}{s}$.
In ideal conditions yeah
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It means at every instant vertical speed continuously increasing. As 1 second completed vertical velocity become $9.8$
Now i am asking my confusion. Sorry for the long writing
The force is not perpendicular to the velocity
i have another q about gr hehe. so in carroll he says "if a coordinate system exists in which components of the metric are constant, the reimann tensor will vanish" this seems reasonable to me since the RCT encodes curvature but he claims that $\partial_{\sigma}\Gamma^{\rho}_{\mu \nu}$ vanishes. then in a separate context, he says "lets consider the components of the tensor $R_{\rho \sigma \mu \nu}$ in locally inertial coordinates the christoffels will vanish but their derivatives will not."
It will be perpendicular only for an "infinitesimal" time interval, after which the velocity vector is no longer purely horizontal
18:03
i feel like im missing smth here because arent these both saying different things ab whether or not the derivatives of christoffels will vanish in locally inertial coords?
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@Amit Yes i understand in projectile force is not always perpendicular to the direction of motion. But i want to draw your attention the instant when i throw an object horizontal. At that instant force is perpendicular to the direction of motion.
Yes, for an infinitesimally small time interval
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What happened at that instant. Just direction change not magnitude? Same happened in circular motion at every instant.
Yes, but this instant is practically $0$ seconds
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@Amit How do we know, how much direction is changed?
18:05
Just like when an object reaches a maximum height it attains speed $0 \text{ m/s}$ for an instant
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Is there any vector addition process to measure the change in direction?
The direction is changed according to $\mathbf{\Delta{v}}=\mathbf{g}\Delta{t}$
The direction of the velocity vector
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@Amit Pls explain it
@Relativisticcucumber Locally inertial coordinates are not the same as "coordinates in which components of the metric are constant"
In cartesian 2d coordinates: $\mathbf{g}=(0,-9.8)$ , $\mathbf{v_0}=(v_x,0)$ so since we have $\mathbf{v}=\mathbf{v_0}+\mathbf{g}t$...
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18:09
@Amit Yes
locally inertial coordinates (mathematically also: Riemann normal coordinates) always exist, but coordinates in which the components of the metric are constant only exist when the Riemann tensor vanishes as you just said
Now $\mathbf{v}=\mathbf{v}(t)$ and $\mathbf{v_0}=\mathbf{v}(t=0)$... this implies what I wrote above for $\Delta{t}$
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@Amit What is understand direction change process is only instantaneous if force is perpendicular to the direction of motion. It repeat instantly only when force is always perpendicular. Am i correct?
I don't understand
Mad
Mad
@Relativisticcucumber ah okay thanks for confirming!
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18:15
@Amit Pls continue.
Continue what?
I'm not sure what is your difficulty
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@Amit The topic you explaining me.
@ACuriousMind wait why not? i thought locally inertial coordinates give the minkowski metric?
Mad
Mad
18:16
Oh
nevermind, got it
@Relativisticcucumber at a point
Mad
Mad
rubberduck debugging
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@Amit I wanted to understand $\Delta{V}$ in your derivation. Where is that vector how much it change direction , what is the process
not in a neighbourhood
Note that even if you throw the object at an upwards angle, there will come a point where $v_y=0$ so for an instant anyway the velocity will be purely horizontal. This is no different than the statement that if you derive $y(t)$ you will find $y'(t)=0$ at precisely that instant. The height function is "stationary" at that point
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18:18
@Amit Yes you are right
I was analyzing the situation. Where I have three objects A , B , C
okay what is the proper qualifier to the statement "if a coordinate system exists in which the components of the metric are constant, the RCT will vanish" -- is it that this statement is valid in a neighborhood? @ACuriousMind
in normal coordinates at $x=0$ you have: $g_{\mu\nu}(x) = \eta_{\mu\nu} + \frac{1}{3}R_{\mu\nu\rho\sigma}x^\rho x^\sigma + \mathcal{O}(x^3)$, i.e. the measure of how much locally inertial coordinates are not "coordinates in which the metric is constant" is exactly the curvature!
@Relativisticcucumber I mean what does "constant" mean if not "in a neighbourhood"?
stuff can't be "constant at a point" - everything's just a value at a point
ah good point
no pun intended
none taken
In general: $\mathbf{v}(t) = \mathbf{v}(0)+\mathbf{a}t$ , now put $t=\Delta{t}$ and rearrange: $\mathbf{v}(\Delta{t})-\mathbf{v}(0)=\mathbf{a}\Delta{t}$ , that's it, call the LHS $\mathbf{\Delta{v}}$ to indicate it's the change of the velocity vector in a very small time. Now for any finite amount of time in your projectile motion problem, not only the direction will change. Only for $\Delta{t} \rightarrow 0$ there is no change of direction...
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18:22
@Amit A is stationary and at origin, where B and C is moving with same velocity in same direction. From A frame of reference B & C are moving with the same speed. And from B & C frame of reference both are stationary. B is above at C.
at moment instantaneous perpendicular force is applied to the B. From C frame of reference B initially at rest then gain some velocity and coming toward C with that velocity
@ACuriousMind hm and how do we tell the domain for which this is applicable?
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@Amit But from A frame of reference B initial moved along x-axis with $V_x = 3m/s$. Due to application of perpendicular force on B it should change only direction not magnitude. But the problem is that it look B maintain x-comp velocity and due to force it also gain some y-com velocity. What is the problem? Where i am wrong.
Let me share you simulation
@Relativisticcucumber what do you mean?
@123 I don't understand ~75% of what you're trying to convey
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Pls let share you small video.
18:29
@ACuriousMind well i see in my notes that $g_{\mu \nu} \vert _p = \eta_{\mu \nu}$ and $g_{\mu \nu} \approx \eta_{\mu \nu} + O(x^2)$ so i think what i was getting confused on might be related to the first being applicable at a single point and the second being not just a point, and im trying to understand this. so it seems we can describe the metric as exactly minkowski at one point but then the second statement i wrote, what area of the manifold does this describe? the entire thing?
@Relativisticcucumber the particular expression holds in whatever part of the manifold your coordinate patch covers
it's called a "normal neighbourhood" and usually you only need the proof that it exists for every point, not how it looks like
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@Amit imgur.com/a/0P2z64R Pls see the video link
Mad
Mad
what he doeth in this steppeth?
My assumption, he assume some kind of differentiability and develop taylor
it's just a Taylor expansion to first order again
Mad
Mad
But what the hell do i know
18:39
everything in physics is smooth unless stated otherwise :P
Mad
Mad
my thanks
such moments make me hate physics
learning turns to tedious symbol pushing
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B is moving with the same velocity same direction as C. Both are stationary from their frame of reference. So B is stationary from C frame of reference. When instantaneous force is applied to B it gain some constant velocity and it move linearly toward C.
@ACuriousMind Okay i see. i think im trying to picture how this argument works like i see we can visualize the metric at any arbitrary point as mink but its only for that point so im trying to understand how we obtain curvature then. i guess this is because we can show that the derivatives of the metric vanish at a point but the derivatives of the christoffel symbols do not so as we move around the neighborhood, we curve? hm this argument is a bit strange.
@Relativisticcucumber the derivatives of the metric in normal coordinates do not vanish!
it's just Minkowski at a point
@ACuriousMind i hate myself
18:42
that means its derivatives are non-zero, otherwise it would also be Minkowski at the close-by points
@123 Try to focus your question so you can coherently ask it
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But from A frame of reference same instantaneous force is applied to B but it is now perpendicular from A reference. So perpendicular force change only direction not magnitude. But in this example i calculated B maintains its x-comp velocity it gain y-comp velocity. By rule it does not change magnitude of velocity
where i am wrong
@ACuriousMind bah but i thought $\partial_{\sigma} g_{\mu \nu} = 0$ bc metric compatibility and christoffels are zero
@Relativisticcucumber who said the Christoffels are zero?
carroll
and a guy on youtube
but i must be mixing things up again.
18:44
that's in the "coordinates where the metric is constant"
not in normal/locally inertial coordinates
i am a zucchini brain let me reread this section ill be back
you seem to have accidentally fused these two concepts
@123 Idk what you mean. Both In A's and C's frame only a vertical force is applied on B. That's because Newton's second law looks the same when you move to a frame with constant velocity
huh, so cucumbers use "zucchini" as an insult... :D
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@Amit Yes.
18:47
What is your question
BTW the force can't be "instantaneous" because $a\Delta{t}=0$ if $\Delta{t}=0$...
Idk how you programmed that simulation but I'm sure you didn't multiply by $t=0$ ;-)
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But by the rule this from A frame of reference when instantaneous perpendicular force is applied to B. it change direction but due to change in velocity y-comp. Because x-comp of velocity is still the same. If i add x-com and y-comp velocity. It increase velocity. How perpendicular force increases velocity?
Instantaneous forces can't change inertia
How did you program that simulation? You probably just changed $v_y$... can you change $v_y$ by writing: $v_y = a_y \times 0$? ;-)
try it
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@Amit Oooh okay, you are saying in my example if i look carefully and see it component wise. So x-comp decreases and y-increases so that inertia remains the same?
No, $x$ component won't decrease because there's no force in that direction
I'm saying you're only imagining that the force is "instantaneous"
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@Amit So how can see direction change without components?
18:52
See where? Idk what you did in that simulation
You can do all kinds of unphysical stuff in a simulation
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@Amit Okay. Forget about simulation. Just think my example. It is really really confusing
Go piece by piece. So i can ask question slowly and understand
In your example, in order for B to start moving downward there has to be a vertical force for some $\Delta{t}>0$
That's not "instantaneous"
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@Amit Oooooh... That's great point
It's the only point
lulz
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What happened if the force is instantaneous to the direction. where it moved?
18:56
Do you mean "instantaneous" or perpendicular at every instant?
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@Amit No , in my example if i applied instantaneous force on B. what happened to B? where is the direction of B what is its response?
Nothing will happen, because you're saying that you're applying a force for a time interval that is essentially $0$...
Unless you're applying an "infinite" force ;-) but that's adding a foul to a crime lol
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@Amit Why? because bunch of perpendicular instantaneous force makes circular motion. without changing magnitude only change direction
Don't say bunch
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@Amit What is scientific word for it?
I think i am very close to understanding the process.
19:01
Not scientific, mathematically you can parameterize circular motion by $\mathbf{r}(t) = R(\cos(\omega t),\sin(\omega t))$
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@Amit I know it. I want to understand the physical process. how direction change happened? And what is the process of knowing how much direction change occur?
Mad
Mad
can someone guide me to a video, pdf or something i can read about spherical harmonics to make me understand what the hell is going on
i have been encountering this my whole study years never understanding it
You can try the following... take: $\mathbf{v}=(v_x,v_y)$. Now you can find the perpendicular direction to be: $(-v_y,v_x)$ right? Now you can write a simple program, one that applies acceleration $(-v_y,v_x)\times \Delta{t}$ say 10 times with some small value for $\Delta{t}$, then do the same 20 times but with half the value of $\Delta{t}$. Then compare the length of the initial vector and see how much it changed. It will change less the smaller you make the time interval...
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@Amit Isn't it become instantaneous force because large force in small interval of time.
Idk what you mean
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19:09
Same as impulse.
Impulse is 0 if $t=0$... again...
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@Amit Okay. I think i am mixing the concept. I can understand you are getting me closer to the integration of velocity over time to calculate an acceleration and find vector how much direction change. Am i correct?
other way around
@ACuriousMind but carroll is doing this for reimann normal coordinates
@Relativisticcucumber oh sorry, yes, the Christoffels are also zero at the point $x=0$ in normal coordinates
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19:13
@Amit BTW thank you for your time and help.
note that that doesn't mean the second derivatives vanish, so the Riemann tensor doesn't vanish
@123 If you know a bit of Java, see this little thing I just wrote
i cant link my own message but does that mean the message "okay i see. i think i'm trying to picture..." is wrong still or its ok?
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@Amit Thanks. It is almost the same
np
19:15
@Relativisticcucumber you can link your own message ;)
@ACuriousMind see?
downlevels to carrot brain
wait how are you doing that
have you ever wondered what the :<long_number> at the start is that shows up when you reply to a message?
@123 Same as what?
@ACuriousMind no
Try to change, in the second loop 20->100 and 0.05->0.01, you'll see the vector changes magnitude even less while rotating
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19:17
@Amit length of vector as time decreases
@ACuriousMind but now i do
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Oooh i see. But how much rotating?
@Relativisticcucumber well, it's the unique ID of the chat message you're replying to. If you put the ID of one of your own messages, you can reply to yourself. You get the reply from the permalink of the message: The message I replied to has https://chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/message/63928283#63928283, so it's ID is 63928283. So I type : 63928283 and:
@123 The thing is, in both loops the force is applied for the same amount of time! 1 second in total. But in smaller chunks, it is closer to having an "instantaneous" force applied at every instant.
@ACuriousMind voilá
19:18
The first loop is 10 times x 0.1 seconds , the second loop is 20 times x 0.05 seconds
@123 Hmm I didn't print the components themselves, hold on
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@Amit Oooo Ookay.
@ACuriousMind test
@Relativisticcucumber test
yes
ok
back to zucchini
19:20
@Relativisticcucumber okay so this is problematic or ?
@123 Now it also prints the components
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@Amit Thanks let me see
But I only print the initial and final ones. You can add some prints to the process itself...
It won't be too illuminating
@Relativisticcucumber reading it again I don't find it objectionable
I'm not exactly sure what you're getting at but it's not wrong
@ACuriousMind okay great thanks
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19:25
and force force is instantaneous. Am i correct?
force force?
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Pls explain your results. because both comp become smaller.
It's an Euclidean vector where $v_x^2+v_y^2$ is invariant yeah, so if $v_x$ increases $v_y$ has to decrease but it's not linear of course
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@Amit you wrote (V_x , V_y)
Try to see what you get if you solve $v_x^2+v_y^2 = (v_x+\Delta{v}_x)^2+(v_y+\Delta{v}_y)^2$
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19:27
why your both V_x and V_y become smaller.
huh?
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Let me find the solution
@Amit It is simple algebra why you given this
It looks fun
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$0 = 2V_x \Delta{V_x} + 2V_y \Delta{V_y} + \Delta{V_x^2} + \Delta{V_y^2}$
yuh
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19:35
I did mistake
looks good
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@Amit Okay. So what results comes out from this
Well, put $\Delta{v_x}=a_x\Delta{t}$ and $\Delta{v_y}=a_y\Delta{t}$. Then divide by $\Delta{t}$ and take $\Delta{t}\rightarrow 0$
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@Amit Okay Let me try
@Amit $a_xV_x + a_yV_y = 0$ which is $a\cdot v = 0$
yeah
in case you weren't sure yet lols
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19:43
@Amit acceleration and velocity are perpendicular.
Yeah
But note that if we take finite $\Delta{t}$ this is no longer true.
But, it becomes closer and closer to true the smaller you make $\Delta{t}$ -- that's the point of that little Java program
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@Amit Ookay.. It means my simulation has error
In your simulation it looks like you just suddenly change $v_y$ which is not a physical process
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It means force is instantaneous and perpendicular to the direction of motion to change the direction?
@123 Instead of "instantaneous" write "at every instant"
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19:48
Okay at every instant... How this perpendicular force changing direction bit by bit.
lulz, see Java program
That the direction changes is not your question. Your question is how can it not affect the velocity's magnitude. You just proved algebraically that it changes magnitude only to the extent that the force doesn't change for a finite $\Delta{t}$. But we require that it changes smoothly, so that no matter how small $\Delta{t}$ is it is not the same force.
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I am confused because if $\Delta{t} -> 0$ V_x and V_y getting smaller. Without changing V_x and V_y how rotation of velocity vector happened
here's a thought : What if GR+MWI = Interacting MWI
i mean if quantum gravity can make the worlds interact
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@Amit Thanks it is clear to me.
@123 You reminded me a bit of this question
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19:55
@Amit Let me read. Thanks
it is reasonable because quantum gravity wouldnt obey quantum postulates, and GR on its own does allow time travel
so quantum gravity perhaps makes the worlds of MWI interact
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@Amit I can understand derivative and integral. But still direction change thinking is confusing. Without changing x and y-comp of velocity how can direction change. There must be slight change in both components. One slight decrease and another increase to preserve magnitude in rotation (direction change).
Sure but that is immediate from looking at $v_x^2+v_y^2$ being constant, already said it
if one decreases the other one must increase
You can even show that $$\frac{d}{dt}v_x^2 = -\frac{d}{dt}v_y^2$$
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Yes i can understand the immediate process. but both change may be very little. Is it true?
As little as you want
For any finite $\Delta{t}$
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20:04
Thanks. Now i understand it... Once again thank you very much
Np
20:31
@Amit ewww java :P
@naturallyInconsistent I've no particular strong feelings for Java ;-) it's just what I go to for an online compiler
I like Python much more but honestly I'm not as proficient at it
and I am much more proficient with C++ but it's overkill for what I wanted to do lol
@Amit It is more that Java always gave meow the impression of incredible bloat, and that Java's default maths capabilities do IEEE floating point wrongly, so that it can be a source of hard to trace bugs if you are not insanely careful.
I thought this floating point standard is problematic but if it's done wrongly I would expect they fix it at some point
Luckily I never had to really do any serious floating point related programming
Apart from some fiddling for personal purposes
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