@Akash.B anyone who's good will have no problem getting a job. It's rare that employers will only consider someone with exactly the right experience. If you're smart than most employers will be happy to give you time to get up to speed.
The hard part is getting your foot in the door for the interview.
Talks I had with HR people suggest that many shops are relying more on expert systems and machine learning to do a lot of front-end filtering these days.
I've also talked to people at specifically technological places where the forbid HR to put any but the most trivial filters (Do they claim to have the right level degree? Can they work in the country? Do they have a body temperature above 30 C?) between the slush pile and the hiring manager, so that is not universal.
Anyway. Most physics majors really do have the right stuff, so once they get in front of human beings they do OK.
heard something interesting a while ago: say we have two optical media 1 and 2(1 is optically denser) and light travelling in medium 1 is incident at their boundary at an angle greater than the critical angle. Then does the light enter the second medium at all? i used to think the answer was 'no' but a physicist i know has told me otherwise. any comments?
Am trying to prove that for a paricle in a potential V(r) the rate of change of the expectation value of the orbital angular momentum L is equal to the expectation value of the torque: $\frac{d}{dt} L = N$ where N is r cross the negative curl of V. Any suggestions?
@JohnRennie I'm sorry but I don't know why am I not able to get it... Need a lot of help :-(
@JohnRennie could you please draw a diagram telling why all the forces should be equal and cancel out rather than just the horizontal and the vertical components being equal and cancelling out. I just want to know this thing.
@user8718165 If the sum of the forces in the vertical and horizontal direction is 0, then the sum of the forces is just 0. Your forces are equal in magnitude and opposite in direction, and in the picture, they are not acting at any angle. Therefore, if the picture is appropriately drawn, the net force acting on your particle is 0.
@kylecampbell Ehrenfest's theorem was the one I was thinking of. If you google something like ehrenfest theorem angular momentum torque you'll find lots of articles on it.
@user8718165 Let's say that your forces are equal in magnitude. Then $\sum F_x = F_{left} - F_{right} = 0$ and $\sum F_y = F_{up} - F_{down} = 0$ which $\implies$ equilibrium.
That's just a result of Pascal's law, and it turns out that a pressure change is transmitted undiminished throughout a fluid. It's the principle behind hydraulic lifts.
Right, so the force due to $P_s$ in the picture is the only force with two components. In order for the cross-section of fluid to be in equilibrium, we require that $\sum F_y = P_y - P_{s,y}$ and $\sum F_x = P_x - P_{s,x} = 0.$
@kylecampbell basically, I wanted to know what does the user mean when they say **Why is pressure in a liquid the same in all directions?** in the question I linked
The surrounding fluid exerts a force on that cross section, so that cross section exerts a force on the surrounding fluid (in each corresponding direction) by Newton's 3rd law.
@Slereah Thoughts? ("I think that all young people thinking as theoretical physicists who are interested in black holes should simply buy this new 2019 book...", this is similar apparently)
Well, if the fluid is static, then you can separate the fluid into small cross-sections like the link you gave earlier. Since the forces must balance on the cross-section for the fluid to be static, the sum of the forces on any one particle (or cross-section) of fluid is 0.
@kylecampbell one last thing... what does $P_x = P_y$ mean in the statement $$P_x =P_y=P_s$$ in the article I linked... I understand that $P_x = P_{s,x}$ and $P_y= P_{s,y}$
"Since dx, dy, and dz are very small quantities, dxdydz is negligible in comparison with other two vertical force terms, and the equation reduces to,"
That's where it comes from
Their argument is a bit trickier since they're using an argument with differentials, but you could make the same argument just considering a very small cross-section, summing the forces on it, and then dividing by the area.
@kylecampbell so if the point we consider is infinitesimal dimensions and ignore gravity...then all the the horizontal and the vertical forces are equal (ignoring the sign)...did I get it correct?
and if we consider the signs...the net force is zero
In the plane wave packet example, where will the bohm particle go when it follows the critical trajectory between the family of reflected trajectories and family of transmitted trajectories?
Hey, Landau and Lifshitz's mechanics have a serious problem, in the first section, it says that $L$ is a function of $q, \dot q, t$. After that, it says in the next section that Intertial frame of reference is a function of only velocity square and nothing else $L(\dot q^2)$, after it says in the later part that it is the difference of KE and PE or $L(q, \dot q)$. Can somebody explain that to me?
@AbhasKumarSinha Section 4 is on free particles, section 5 is on particles which are not free, and the form one ends up with is based on Galilean relativity thinking as in section 3, some of this will change when you go to special relativity, the whole thing changes when you go to QM
@bolbteppa "The second term on the right of this equation is a total time derivative only if it's a linear function of the velocity $v$" ref: $$L(v'^2 = L(v^2) + \frac{\partial L}{\partial v^2} 2 \vec{v}. \vec{\epsilon})$$ as $$L' = L(v'^2) = L(v^2 + 2\vec{v} . \vec{\epsilon} + \vec{\epsilon}^2)$$
@AbhasKumarSinha It literally says "Expanding this expression in powers of $\varepsilon$ and neglecting terms above the first order" in the sentence above that expression, not even reading it at this stage :\
> how I think it would work, I believe we live on the exhaust side of the blackhole. I think that it's just a big warp drive engine compressing space on one side as positive energy as matter and expelling it out as heat and radiation as negative energy and expanding space. Just a thought.
If the particle starts infinitesimally forward of the critical position, it’ll end up moving forward ie transmitting
And if it starts infinitesimally behind, it’ll ultimately move backwards ie reflect
That said, I do think this kind of question is significant in the context of arrival times
As in, if the particle’s trajectory is near the critical trajectory, then you’d expect it to take longer to arrive at the relevant detector than one which starts farther away
You start to run into surreal trajectories when the response time is slow (relative to the motion of the particle I guess)
That’s my vague recollection of what the Gisin paper said anyways
one aspect to emphasize I guess: pilot-wave theories really do think of particle positions as being physically real. But that doesn’t mean that position measurements are unequivocally taken to simply reveal that reality
Whether they do depends crucially on the experimental setup you’re using
I am a lot more comfortable dealing with field-like entities than point particles
In fact, before I actually knew bohm, I do have a suspicion that some of my quantum questions back in 2013 may be inspired from the notion of a pilot wave
That is, I consider wavefunctions are some real entity which provide an envelope on how likely events with certain values of properties can be found, and the result of thinking about that, is I start to ask weird questions like how fast the wavefunction itself travels, which makes no sense in orthodox quantum mechanics
The wavefunction in my understanding, thus acts like some kind of field that constrain where particles and events can be found in where
This is actually not very far from the pilot wave picture of bohm. All that is needed is to add the requirement that the particles follow some deterministic dynamics and you are done
Consider the following Sagnac interferometer setup:
where $B$ is a beam splitter which can be raised and lowered with an adjustable frequency $f$, $D$ is a detector which does not click when $B$ is up and clicks when $B$ is down. $S$ is an electron beam source which fires single electrons with...
The thinking in this past question of mine for example, talks about things in terms of a wavefunction as if it is a potential energy surface for probability and other observables, leading to weird equations that makes no sense as Acuriousmind pointed out
In the orthodox picture, each particle carries the state with them and depending on the interpretation, the state really do have a physical meaning, or just an accounting tool
Likewise, for this other past question of mine, there is an implicit assumption that the wavefunction behaves like a potential surface. The answer then revealed my assumption is wrong, thus sending me back to the drawing board: physics.stackexchange.com/questions/288971/…
is that while you can certainly choose to give physical status to the integral curves you get
that's not something which is forced upon you
you could just as well regard it as a useful fiction, suitable for providing intuition, while nevertheless refusing to think of these trajectories as being for actual particles
For my part, I find the question "are these trajectories real" to be less interesting than "are these trajectories useful"
Well, they are indeed useful, but I do wish they (whether trajectories or wavefunctions) are real because then we can start talking about directly manipulating them
Right now, the tools we have is we can only indirectly manipulate these entities by e.g. changing the voltage, changing the initial conditions etc.
Here's a question in that spirit. Suppose you want to build a working quantum computer. In what sense, if any, is it useful to think about Bohmian trajectories?
my sense is that, when it comes to making quantum algorithms, the answer is basically "there isn't one"
for the simple reason that the name of the game there is finite-dimensional hilbert spaces, e.g. a two-level qubit
I think bohm trajectories are useful to work out which portions of the probability density routes to which part of the computer, because the critical trajectories divide the outcomes into regions
If one can control where the critical trajectories are with the hardware, then there is great control on where the bohm particles (or in the orthodox view, what states the particles are likely to be in) will end up
One of my wild wishes that I hope quantum mechanics can make it real, is something like: I poke the position p in the hilbert space, and then I made a node there in the wavefunction. I want to be able to modulate the wavefunction directly without using indirect methods like electric fields, magnetic fields and initial conditions, the same way we can control electric fields to point anywhere we want with machines
What actually controls where the critical trajectories are. The potential step and tunneling example suggests it is controlled by the experimental setup itself
in the first step, we are getting a carbocation(tert-butyl).carbocation formation has a high energy barrier and is hence slower so the second step is the faster one @Curio
Btw in my uni, one of my physics postdoc collegue is secretly a bohmian believer, thus I recommended him the papers you recommend me and boteppa to read
One reason I like nonlocality may have to do with my personal insecurity: Imagine if you screw something up, and you can hide like schroedinger's cat, then anyone who tried to find you will get a blur instead
I used to not like Bohmian because it is deterministic, but at that time I do not know about how it recovers probabilistic dynamics from ignorance of initial conditions thus I was pretty ignorant back then a long time ago in my 2nd year undergrad
@bolbteppa it's an hour and I've read the whole chapter again, but still, I didn't get what that means? "Expanding this expression in powers of $\vec \epsilon$ and neglecting terms above the first order, we obtain"
well, entanglement are also nonlocal correlations, and that works fine with relativity. I think nothing can really break relativity if the nonlocality is hidden thus avoiding the signalling. It also does not seemed far fetched to propose the wavefunction controls the foilation. In fact, I suspect it might be necessary to think about such dependence, as that 2017 paper that showed a contradiction when trying to do an extended wigner friend experiment shows
What I like in that paper is the suggestion that the kind of foliation you need for BM to make sense is a foliation that'll exist in any field theory (bohmian or otherwise)
One of the things GR throw away is absolute distance, that is quite a dealbreaker in my current mode of thinking because when I construct all these conceptual mental spaces that help me to reason with abstract concepts, I rely alot on the notion of distance to not change as I move to another position in the space
But in GR, space itself is changing
thus I don't have easy reference points to check my orientation
though, with the help of Akiva posts on hyperbolic space animations, I am starting to regain a new kind of intuition on dealing with GR spacetimes. Thus I might soon figure out how to navigate them without getting lost
Quantum field theory arguably is a lot harder for me to not have misconceptions though, because no longer you can thing about "two objects bump into each other and interact", but can only talk about "in this region, something and something else happens, and then this is the distribution of results"
I also argue that some metaphysics actually help me to expand my intuition to very counterintuitive concepts:
So "spacelessness" will sound like something that lack dimensions of any kind, and yet is not a point, hmm... it sounds really structureless. Even sets have a notion of cardinality...
@AbhasKumarSinha actually I misconsidered you to be that person who often posts about coding here when I first saw your message because your avatar looks similar to his/hers.
I don't know the full answer, but it seems this PSE gives some info on how the metric signature and topology is insufficient to ensure there is causal separation:
(See here for notation.) In Minkowski space, if $p\prec q$, then there is no spacelike curve $c:[0,1]\to \mathbb{R}^{n-1,1}$ with $c(0)=p$ and $c(1)=q$. This is obvious from a spacetime diagram. Here a "spacelike curve" is a $C^1$ mapping from a nondegenerate inverval into a Lorentzian manifold w...
It's disappointing that when you come back from being suspended, they don't give you your rep back in the new rep window :( it'd have been nice to see 20+ rep in that box (at least until I accidentally clicked it)
Do you guys now why it is so effective to cool off coffee by blowing? It's much mor eeffective than stirring the coffee with a spoon?
I think it's because by blowing you remove the air above the cup which have a very high humidity. Then a new balance will have to settle, causing much more evaporative cooling. Is my thinking correct?
Consider then the 3-velocity components and two reference frames $S$ and $S'$ in standard configuration. I know that concerning a change of coordinates, the primed coordinates are functions of the non-primed ones, i.e.: $x'(t,x,y,z)$ $y'(t,x,y,z)$ $z'(t,x,y,z)$ $t'(t,x,y,z)$. But in order to construct the velocity in a particular frame (say, $S'$) the derivative of the position are taken on a function $x'(t')$.
The Clausius–Clapeyron relation, named after Rudolf Clausius and Benoît Paul Émile Clapeyron, is a way of characterizing a discontinuous phase transition between two phases of matter of a single constituent. On a pressure–temperature (P–T) diagram, the line separating the two phases is known as the coexistence curve. The Clausius–Clapeyron relation gives the slope of the tangents to this curve. Mathematically,
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Under the ideal gas approximation section, the third equation should read L upon t delta v
@Loong I think that's usually a sign of a dysfunctional meeting culture - many places tend to have lots of meetings for issues that could've been dealt with more efficiently in writing, but it's possible to have productive meetings.
@ACuriousMind I didn't understand your point. The thing is, x(t) something which you derive with respect to time to obtain the velocity. In primed coordinates it's the same thing instead (of course) you're using primed coodinates x'(t'). But in order to give some significance for texts books when they said "here we use the chain rule", the only way I found was to write x'(t(t')), but this seems to be something wrong.
@M.N.Raia You already know how to write $x'(t)$. The whole thing also applies in reverse, so you can also write $t(t',x',y',z')$. Which means that you can apply the chain rule to $\mathrm{d}x'/\mathrm{d}t'$ to write it as $\mathrm{d}x'/\mathrm{d}t \cdot \mathrm{d}t/\mathrm{d}t'$. It's not very obvious why this is useful, but I don't get what confuses you about the principle of it.
@M.N.Raia Ah! A velocity is along a path, that is, when you're computing a velocity you have functions $x(t), y(t), z(t)$ and $x'(t'), y'(t'), z'(t')$, and you're computing the derivative of $x'(t')$. Since you also have $t(t',x',y',z')$, along a path that is $t(t', x'(t'), y'(t'), z'(t')) \equiv t(t')$. Then you also have $x'(t) \equiv x'(t, x(t), y(t), z(t))$.
I used $\equiv$ there to denote that I'm "forgetting" that the original function had four slots and just consider it as a function of the parameter all four slots depend on
if I compute the chain rule with, x'(t'(t)) I get dx'(t'(t))/dt which is wrong because I we have a primed quantity with respect to a non -primed quantity. I want to reach this formula here dx'/dt' = dx'/dt\cdot dt/dt'
Why do you leave out the dollar signs? Don't you have ChatJax activated to render MathJax? (see the room description in the top right corner for a link for how to do it)
@M.N.Raia I wrote above how to get functions $x'(t)$ and $t(t')$. If you plug the second into the first, you get $x'(t(t'))$. Now applying the chain rule gets you where you want.
@ACuriousMind yes! This is the right function $x'(t(t'))$ which gives you the chain rule. But how can a prime quantity depends on a non-primed quantity? It will be the end of my doubts if you say that $x'(t(t')) \equiv x'(t')$
@M.N.Raia We have three functions: $x'(t')$, the naive path in the primed system, and two functions along the path $x'(t)$ and $t(t')$ derived from the coordinate transformations.If you plug $t(t')$ into $x'(t)$, you get a function of $t'$ as $x'(t(t'))$ along the path. But in order for the coordinate transformations to be consistent, this - as a function of $t'$ - has to be the same function as the naive $x'(t')$.
Physics is scheduled for an election next week, April 22nd 2019. In connection with that, we will be holding a Q&A with the candidates. This will be an opportunity for members of the community to pose questions to the candidates on the topic of moderation. Participation is completely voluntary.
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Well, it...grew. At the beginnings it was little more than a little script language for the R/2 system. Then it became a fully fledged procedural programming language (+ built-in SQL dialect and UI framework). Then an object-oriented dialect grew on top of it, functional-style expression, etc...
At some point along the way, the original name simply wasn't an accurate description for what it did anymore
@KyleKanos Bit of a tricky one, what if they have no poorly received meta posts? (For instance, when I nominated, none of my meta posts had a negative score)