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15:00
which is fairly easy in a vector space
Though I guess it is multiplication by $x$ at every point
Oh wait
@glS not so much yet, in the future, yeah
@0celo7 That's... Huh? O.o
Are the ones that aren't $L_2$ the wavefunctions that do not converge to $0$ at infinity?
@ACuriousMind his other student was there too, and he calls him by his first name
Anonymous
@0celo7 He doesn't like you ;P
15:02
I...can only come to the conclusion your advisor doesn't like you? oO
If they don't converge at infinity they might grow too big on the edges to be $L_2$, I guess?
@Blue the opposite
@0celo7 am I correct in my assumptions
@0celo7 what would your advisor do if you just started calling them by their first name?
I'm staying at his house during a conference over the summer and also at his parents' in Rio
glS
glS
15:02
@Mithrandir24601 when you meet him, say Stefano someone from Belfast says hello, he'll know who I am!
Anonymous
@0celo7 He loves you so much that he wants a personal pet name from you?
@Blue ...fuck
Or maybe he's so impressed by you that he feels first name basis would be disrespectful of you :P
what is wrong with you
Anonymous
lol
15:03
@ACuriousMind Should i insist he calls me Mr. Unger?
@Slereah what?
@glS will do! Although that might be January
@0celo7 He doesn't?
@ACuriousMind No
That is, he calls you by your first name but you're not allowed to use his?
Yes
15:03
that's weird
well, yes
@0celo7 That $\hat x \psi(x)$ may not be $L_2$ if $\lim_{x \to \infty} \psi(x) \neq 0$
Anonymous
@0celo7 Sounds like the typical Indian professor
Such a dynamic is completely unheard of in Germany outside of school - whatever two people call each other is usually reciprocal
sure, but I'm not sure that's guaranteed
@Slereah
@Slereah also take a function that's $O(x^{-2})$ (but not better) at infinity
that's not in the domain of x
15:05
And I would usually take someone else's usage of my first name as an implicit invitation to use theirs in return
@ACuriousMind Well Morwen asked for me!
Are $O(x^{-1})$ functions not $L_2$?
Yeah, I got nothing for this situation. It's very odd
@Slereah oh shit $L^2$
take the square root of what I said
@ACuriousMind it does seem to be the system in China - even the postdocs call the profs 'professor' when using English and I could swear I heard 'sifu' more than once
15:06
Yeah I s'ppose
@Slereah $O(x^{-1})$ integrates to $O(\log x)$
Which makes sense what with the whole unbounded operators aren't defined on the whole Hilbert space
So the philosophical question goes like this:
Right
@Mithrandir24601 one of us calls profs over the age of 50 "professor" unless they're women and she likes them
very complicated system
15:08
M'lady
Anonymous
It's way simpler here. Just call everyone "Sir".
@Slereah exactly, but I think you have to wait till chapter 9 to see that proof
@ACuriousMind See I don't want to go nuclear but insisting he call me Mr. Unger would be hilarious
@0celo7 is there a relation between $x\psi$ not in $L^2$ and $p \psi$ not in L^2$
Or are they not in $L^2$ independantly
@0celo7 It would be equal parts justified and petty. I like it.
@ACuriousMind (I have the same situation with a German btw)
15:09
Can't rly think of a link between bad functions at infinity and discontinuous functions
@0celo7 you can say that again...
@Blue how very Indian :P
Sid
Sid
@0celo7 Yep. No one gets any issues with it
@Blue What do you call women?
@ACuriousMind It does also include a rocket landing
15:10
Ma'am?
@Sid In America we use our names a lot, which is an issue.
Russian spies used to get tripped up by this
We knew that the wavefunction in continuous variables (such as position and momentum wavefunctions) resides in a hilbert space where the fourier basis is an orthonormal basis. Thus given any integrable and continous $\psi (x)$ it can be expressed as an infinite sum of plane waves. i.e.

$$\psi (x) = \frac{1}{2\pi}\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n\sin (nx) + b_n\cos (nx)$$
Anonymous
@ACuriousMind If you (we) don't know their gender (online), just call them Sir unless they clarify. And once you know they're female then call them Maám. Weird but simple
Now consider the following figure:
Anonymous
It's sort of sexist though
15:12
Not all $L^2$ functions can be expressed by plane waves!
@Blue I agree with this. Assume male until proven otherwise. Yeah sexist but it works.
I think they can differ at a set of measure $0$
@Secret Stop right there. If both position and momentum are continuous, you cannot have a discrete Fourier series.
Until genders in STEM normalize you'll be right more often than not.
unless you're on a compact space
15:13
If/when they do normalize, rotate!
I did a statistics class at uni once
@Slereah ... or you're OK with a non-square-integrable $\psi$
Anonymous
@0celo7 lol
@Slereah The point is that if position is compact, then momentum is discrete, and vice versa.
it was where all the ladies were hiding for some reason
@EmilioPisanty not a very good wavefunction
15:13
@Slereah indeed it wouldn't be
@Slereah There were a lot of women in my algebra classes. Not passing judgement.
::looks at @ACuriousMind::
::looks at @0celo7::
@ACuriousMind Alicia
$$
\begin{array}{ccc}
\begin{pmatrix}
\text{Fourier transform}\\
t\color{blue}{\text{ unbounded}}\text{ and }\color{blue}{\text{continuous}}\\
\omega\color{blue}{\text{ unbounded}}\text{ and }\color{blue}{\text{continuous}}
\end{pmatrix}
& &
\begin{pmatrix}
\text{Fourier series}\\
t\color{green}{\text{ bounded}}\text{ and }\color{blue}{\text{continuous}}\\
\omega\color{blue}{\text{ unbounded}}\text{ and }\color{green}{\text{discrete}}
\end{pmatrix}
\\ & & \\
\begin{pmatrix}
\text{Time series}\\
as they say
@EmilioPisanty did you have that prepared
15:15
@0celo7 nope, typed it just now
@Slereah what is the question now?
four keystrokes, ctrl c ctrl v
from
6
A: Why is $S(\omega)=S(\omega +2\pi)$ true for a frequency spectrum?

Emilio PisantyThe relationship $S(\omega)=S(\omega+2\pi/T)$, which you can simplify to $S(\omega)=S(\omega+2\pi)$ if you have some reference timescale $T$ to compare to, is false in the general case. It should be intuitively clear that the arbitrary function has an arbitrary Fourier transform, which means that...

@EmilioPisanty so you had it prepared
Correction:
$$\psi (x) = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \tilde{\psi} (p) e^{-2\pi i p x} dp$$
> putting $2\pi$ in the exponential
15:16
@0celo7 yeah, you could say that =P
you're gonna get your butt whooped
@0celo7 putting $dp$ in the exponential is kinda worse, innit
@EmilioPisanty that was a typo, he fixed it
@EmilioPisanty I'm afraid my excitement for that is limited, too
but yes, $2\pi$ in the exponential won't make you many friends
@ACuriousMind each their own and all that, then =P
Sid
Sid
15:17
duh, Python Data Structures are easy and boring
@EmilioPisanty I define $dx$ to be Lebesgue measure times $(2\pi)^{-n/2}$ :)
my Fourier transforms have no $\pi$s in them
@0celo7 your convolutions do
Anonymous
@Sid Start solving CLRS
and/or the convolution theorem
@ACuriousMind you seen any SpaceX landing? granted, after the first they're not that different. but if you haven't seen one you oughter.
don't think so @EmilioPisanty
15:18
heck, you don't even need to be convinced the rocket went anywhere fancy to appreciate the landing
@EmilioPisanty Yeah, I did (not live either, though)
@ACuriousMind fair enough
Before I started elaborating using the picture, for clarify, let me first state his question so if I happen to fail at my explanation, at least we know what area we are dealing with:
@0celo7 don't think what?
@Secret "his" question?
@EmilioPisanty I think the fact that there's only one FT on one side of the convolution theorem cancels out the normalization in my definition of the convolution
15:20
This is a question by a philospher I met today in the complexity criticality and computational symposium
Hey guys. After a very long time
if you do that normalization I think it's equivalent to putting the thing in the exponentian
@0celo7 hmmmm. That might work? I'm not sure, though.
I found it intriguing enough thus I decided to ask it so
@EmilioPisanty when I teach functional analysis in a few years I'll get back to you
15:21
@0celo7 you do that
in any case some people (Swedes) define a dbar x like $\hbar$ that's normalized by $(2\pi)^{-n/2}$ and it works out well
then they have two measures and never need to worry about it
@0celo7 is there a dbar in tex?
@EmilioPisanty tikz
$\dj$?
nope
15:23
c'mon, detexify, you're better than that
Sid
Sid
@Blue I am now trying to go for C++ after finishing Python Data Structures.
@EmilioPisanty see the $d\eta$
it's the natural measure for Fourier transforms
Anonymous
@Sid I don't understand. Why would you do data structures for C++ and Python separately?
$\text{\dj}$?
nope
Anonymous
Start solving the problems instead in both languages
Sid
Sid
15:25
@Blue Nah, not completely confident in C++. So, will try to brush that up now...
How does one pronounce BRST quantization
@0celo7 Approximately
I want to say "breast"
burst
@0celo7 reputedly all of those issues go away if you do like Secret and put the $2\pi$ in the exponent
15:26
@EmilioPisanty sometimes you have to have integrity instead of going for the easy solution
my thoughts exactly
@BalarkaSen how many 50-minute lectures would it take to get through the first 30 pages of little Milnor
@EmilioPisanty Also introducing another standard is stupid at this point
Intro to diff top? hm
His question: I cannot understand how can true randomness (meaning the process is not pseudorandom) will ensure localisation will be possible. For example, the fourier transform of a continuum of frequency of plane waves gives a sinc function,
but if quantum mechanics is truly random, that means in theory the phase difference from one frequency to the next does not necessary all line up at the origin to produce the peak, and even if peaks were still being produced, the particle will not be localised in a certain region of space. How does true randomness ensure the classical limit behaviour where particles have well defined positions be arised. Does the law of large number holds for sample spaces that are infinite?
I have enough problems with signs in PDE, don't try to kill me with $2\pi$s
15:27
@0celo7 I think it's standard in signal processing or some such?
it's definitely around
@Secret That's pretty close to word salad.
@BalarkaSen I think the topology 2 prof will let me teach the first 5 chapters if I can do it in a reasonable amount of time. Brouwer fixed point theorem should be doable in 3 lectures
> if quantum mechanics is truly random, that means in theory the phase difference from one frequency to the next does not necessary all line up at the origin to produce the peak
what?
for one, that's hardly grammatical English. But no obvious grammatical fixes take that into something that makes much sense
he then argue that quantum mechanics shoudl be pseudorandom. At that time when he discussed that question with me, I don't have answers for him, and I said it is interesting enough thus I will ask the community about it.

Now, my elaboration on what his question is about:
@EmilioPisanty none of us are signals people here, so we shouldn't be talking about a 2pi in the exponential
@Secret the question doesn't make any sense, but to the extent that it does it is based on a misunderstanding of how QM works
if you're going to just build on that without fixing the problems... gulp
15:31
I also have the same conclusion, but I need to be able to convince him that
He said I managed to understood his question fully, and which is why my elaboration will make it clear on where the misconception is hiding
@Secret well, produce a version of the argument you want dissected that is grammatically cogent, and we can help with that
@Secret that's a sign that he's a crazy man
2
Ok let me try clean up the question a bit:
"Proposition 3.9 For all sufficiently nice functions φ and ψ"
@Secret good man. and/or woman.
15:34
@0celo7 how is niceness defined
What is the set of nice functions
$\mathfrak{Nice}(\mathbb R^n) \subset L^2(\mathbb R^n)$
defined in the first line of the proof
@0celo7 In the first three lectures you mean?
@Slereah You put $\varphi$ and $\psi$ in a room together for an hour and you observe whether they get into a fight or not.
That sounds about right
@BalarkaSen Yeah I want to get through Brouwer fixed point at least
15:35
I think 3 is fine
@Slereah otherwise, that just sounds like the standard hypothesis on any theorem in physics-side QM
@BalarkaSen I think 3 can be skipped
4 and 5 probably another 3?
it's the credit viewpoint on rigour. Get the results first, worry about the hypothesis later. ;-)
I usually skip 3
@BalarkaSen usually?
you've taught this book before?
15:36
lol I mean I usually recommend people to skip 3
im being lazy about my statements
Wait
I think the proof is beautiful but my advisor is teaching analysis 2 and he'll do Sard there
Does it mean $X$ and $P$ aren't symmetric if it's insufficiently nice
(using my notes from when I read this book)
Or is everyone nice on the domain
15:37
Gotcha
Yeah I guess it is
Suppose quantum mechanics is truly random. This means for each frequency component in the fourier transform, there is no restriction (modulo a period of the plane wave in that frequency component) on where it can be placed in space. Our usual results of demonstrating the localisation of the wavefunction of a particle at the classical limit in undergraduate quantum textbooks is by showing that the fourier transform of all frequency modes will give a resultant wave sharply peaked at the origin.

(The sentence is not finished yet, but does it makes sense to you so far?)
> Suppose quantum mechanics is truly random.
this makes no sense
@Slereah he's only claiming they're symmetric on their respective domains
it is simply not specific enough to make any sense
15:39
He define true randomness this way:
@EmilioPisanty It means quantum mechanics is the spirit essence of the random universe guided by a probabilistic random variable taking values on a Cantor set
@Secret Particles are rarely very spread all over space
The probability of being very far off is very small
@BalarkaSen ah, gotcha
Also particles are indistinguishable, so it's hard to know where particles end up
A process is truly random if the outcomes are probabilistic and there are no pseudorandom process involved (that is, there exists no seed or determinstic process that can generate a particular probability distribution)
15:40
But on the other hand
It's really simple, but quite profound
It's a TRUE THEOREM that particles can end up arbitrarily far
@BalarkaSen actually
IN ALL CIRCUMSTANCES
the cantor set has measure zero so you can omit it
15:41
that is Hegerfeldt's theorem
there's no compact region of space where a particle has 100% chances of being
So a particle can be measured arbitrarily far
is that like a
Which to my understanding (which he checked seemed to match what he had in mind) is that true randomness means there are no hidden variables of any kind, including nonlocal ones
statement about the wavefunctions?
i.e., none are compactly supported
No
It's not true in non-relativistic QM
You can have a compactly supported wavefunction
15:43
But it is true if you add relativity
@Secret You haven't actually applied this randomness to anything (yet)
these mystical theorems always leave a bad taste in my mouth
very little in the way of definable hypotheses
You've just stated a theorem about Fourier transforms.
The list of hypothesis is fairly simple
15:44
This will be coming next (I am typing slow this time to ensure we are all clear)
It's like
QM
@Secret sure
Some operator of time translation
microlocality
honestly QM is not a good hypothesis
what does that even mean
15:44
that kind of stuff
@0celo7 the usual stuff
Projective Hilbert space
The CCR
you mean Weyl relations
the actual conditions :
is this from the book?
fugg
reip in rekt
15:46
It is!
Although that's Malament's theorem
I didn't include the conditions for Hegerfeldt's yet
@Slereah There's a Malament theorem?
that's catalan for "badly"
There's several Malament theorems!
By David Malament
also "unwell"
maybe his ancestor was a sickly fellow
unwell in the head!
15:48
@Slereah quite possibly, yes
So, since quantum is truely, random, there is no guarentee that all frequency modes must all line up at the orign to produce the sharp peaked wavefunction as expected to be what happened at the classical limit. Since the space the frequency modes resides in is infinite, it is vastly more likely for the peaks of each plane wave to never line up to produce just one peak,
but that will mean that the particle is actually delocalised in more than one position in space at the classical limit, which is not what we observed for classical particles as they form a continuous trajectory as they move, with no sudden jumps from one observation to the next
uh oh physics chat session
^Hegerfeld's theorem
time for me to scurry
15:49
@Secret This "quantum is truly random" hypothesis has nothing to do with QM as it is normally understood.
I get to be here for this one, even, although I'm not sure we have anything to discuss
@Secret All you've done is take a localized state, take its Fourier transform, radically alter it, Fourier transform back, and be surprised that the state has been radically altered.
aw man
Sci hub is down
@DavidZ these chat sessions used to be involved
15:50
@Slereah try .tw
I guess that was before people decided talking about homework was futile?
@Secret There is nothing in QM that tells you that the continuum-representation phases of states will spontaneously randomize.
@Slereah or the telegram bot
@BalarkaSen I was talking with the prof last night and he wants to do de Rham but can't be bothered to explain exterior algebra
@DavidZ I have a barage of phsyics to share in the past 2 weeks which I will do it after resolving the philosopher's quantunm qurestion (which emilo is doing now and it seems to be getting to a conclusion)
15:52
and I have to concurr, people not understanding really basic things like tensors/forms makes teaching basic classes a pain in the ass
once you understand them it's second nature
@EmilioPisanty I see, I think that's might be the answer to his question.
@0celo7 exterior algebra should be explained by motivating with the form theory
and now... preparing physics block
@BalarkaSen I don't know how to motivate anything other than 1- and n-forms
@Secret But perhaps more importantly, the classical limit of QM doesn't mean that all possible quantum states will behave classically (which is the only apparent source of contradiction in your text). It needs to be done carefully, but it essentially says that there are suitable classes of states (not the ones you described) which under certain limits behave like classical systems. The fact that other classes behave differently tells you nothing valuable.
15:54
@0celo7 Cross product
@Slereah something no mathematician cares about
@0celo7 things you integrate. things which are volume elements.
lots of way to think about them
Well maybe that's the problem
what about
The curl
@BalarkaSen I might just be terrible about motivating math in general
Curl is important
And it's a 2-form
15:56
because when I think about how to motivate stuff I know very well, I get depressed that it's all useless
curl and div are the exterior derivative operators, yes
@0celo7 lol
you can explain the cross product via exterior derivative + Hodge *
@0celo7 Go to physics
It's full of 2-forms
@MatheinBoulomenos so?
sanic hodgestar
15:57
Sonic collects rings, not stars
That's Mario
@Slereah ok, I'll do Yang-Mills to motivate it
I'm sure that will fly
@Slereah sanic, not sonic
fuck it, Seiberg-Witten
let's go
teach me seiberg witten
Do math people know the Yang Mill
I dunno
15:58
yeah gauge theorists do that
all the time
Yang Mills is like their spirit animal
Gauge theorists aren't math people
there are math people who do gauge theory
they are bro
Taubes is a gauge theorist
he's a math people
I'm considering putting some of his stuff in my thesis
15:59
he worked out expansions for generalized Green's functions on p-form bundles
what a nerd

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