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Anonymous
21:00
Yes, that ^
Anonymous
:P
Anonymous
Anyone here knows what short-circuit inductance means?
Anonymous
Short-circuit inductance is the inductance when one of the primary winding or the secondary winding of the transformer is short-circuited and measured from the other winding. This value is often called informally as leakage inductance of the transformer. But the term leakage inductance which is in the electromagnetic literature is defined as an inductance caused by a magnetic flux (leakage flux) which is interlinked with one winding of a primary winding or a secondary winding and does not interlink with the other winding. So a confusion is caused by called short-circuit inductance as leakag...
Anonymous
I can't make much sense out of this ^
looking at the snopes page re: that urban legend, the conclusion is basically that: It wouldn't kill you, but it wouldn't exactly be a pleasant experience
21:03
@ACuriousMind Thanks. What if a newly discovered sockpuppet has a lot of worthy contributions, in this case isn't he merged into his original account (which may be then suspended)?
@peterh If the user requests the merge before being discovered, i.e. the sockpuppetry is accidental or not in bad faith, then that might happen, but generally sockpuppets are not merged. Note that deleting an account does not delete their worthy contributions, i.e. a standard account deletion does not delete any non-negatively scored posts.
@0ßelö7
Yes I noticed the question. I think the answer is positive if the spacetime is strongly causal.
Sockpuppetry is only bad if you use it to circumvent system restrictions - if you have two or more accounts that never vote for each other, don't accept each other's answers and don't do anything else that you couldn't technically do with a single account, then you are allowed to do that.
@ValterMoretti Strong causality seems like a very strong condition considering I'm not asking for uniqueness.
@ACuriousMind Thanks. Can you say me, if he is gone for his own request?
21:08
@0ßelö7 indeed you have to impose and solve a Cauchy problem in a globally hyperbolic neighborhood of $p$.
@ValterMoretti I have a sketched argument: Assume the point is in some globally hyperbolic neighborhood. On a spacelike surface $\Sigma$ through $p$, we can define a function with $f$ with $\nabla_\Sigma f$ specified. Then we have...
@ValterMoretti yes, that's exactly what I'm sketching here
@0ßelö7 so what is the probem?
@ValterMoretti I feel like that's too involved: you have to solve forwards and backwards in time, then use an energy argument/hyperbolic regularity to conclude that everything is smooth
@peterh Yes, deletion by his own request. Any further information you would have to get from him directly, by whatever means.
@ACuriousMind Sad :-( Thanks anyways.
21:11
@ValterMoretti If you evolve a little back in time you can use uniqueness/regularity to conclude the pasted together solution is smooth, I think.
But I'm not entirely sure if one can just run hyperbolic systems back in time
@0ßelö7 I think you have to decompose the vector into a tangent and normal component and fix in a neighborhood of $p$, over a Cauchy surface passing through $p$ two Cauchy conditions compatble with your conditions
@0ßelö7 every solution satisfying these conditions (and there are infinitely many) solves your problem
@ValterMoretti Well I want to put a spacelike surface $\Sigma$ through $p$, then evolve forward in time to get $u^+$ and backwards to get $u^-$. If one specifies $\nabla u|\Sigma$ at $p$ and $\partial_t u$ at $p$, one gets the condition on the derivative
But then to check that $u^+$ and $u^-$ join smoothly on $\Sigma$ I would run $u^-$ back to some time $-\epsilon$, then go forward again to some time $+\epsilon$
By uniqueness it must be $u^-$ then $u^+$, and also smooth everywhere
@0ßelö7 $u^\pm$?
Does that sound right?
1 min ago, by 0ßelö7
@ValterMoretti Well I want to put a spacelike surface $\Sigma$ through $p$, then evolve forward in time to get $u^+$ and backwards to get $u^-$. If one specifies $\nabla u|\Sigma$ at $p$ and $\partial_t u$ at $p$, one gets the condition on the derivative
@0ßelö7 I do not understand well
21:14
@ValterMoretti I want the solution to exist in a neighborhood, so it needs to exist on both sides of the hypersurface
@0ßelö7 Indeed, if a solution of a Cauchy problem exists it exists both in the future and in the past of the Cauchy surface. There is no problem
if I solve a Cauchy problem on both sides I then need to make sure it's smooth across the surface
It is smooth
yes, by the argument above...
You have only to prove that a solution exists, it is automatically smooth
21:18
@ValterMoretti it will be one-sided smooth
i.e. $u\in C^\infty([0,T)\times \Sigma)$ and $u\in C^\infty((-T,0],\Sigma)$
but $u\in C^\infty((-T,T)\times\Sigma)$ is stronger
But what is true is that even if $u$ is only just $C^1$ across the boundary it will be a weak solution on say $[-T/2,T)\times \Sigma$, hence smooth there
The standard existence and uniqueness theorem for the hyperbolic Cauchy problem on Lorentzian manifolds, referred to a smooth Cauchy surface states the existence and uniqueness of the solution both in the past and in the future of the surface
So it's smooth on $(-T,T)\times\Sigma$ after all
I mean a smooth solution also through the surface
yes
21:21
So standard that I've never seen it...but I imagine the proof is what I just said, no?
It's a weak solution across the surface so everything is Gucci
The local proof is in Freidlander book
I've been meaning to get that
Sadly my univ doesn't have a copy
Don't know why
the global proof can be found in the book by Baer Genoux and... I do not remember
@ValterMoretti this one has been bugging me physics.stackexchange.com/questions/338815/…
However it is equivalent to the existence of the causal propagator
21:24
@ValterMoretti that's a bit deeper into hyperbolic PDE than I might care to go.
@ValterMoretti thanks
so speaking of strong causality
I saw you left a comment on that question
I never got it resolved and it's still bugging me
Yes, but I guess that causality is enough after a result by Bernal and Sanchez
@ValterMoretti For? I think we're talking about different things
I'm talking about the convex normal neighborhoods question
I think that causal spacetime implies that locally the hyperbolic cauchy problem is well posed
Every point admits a geodesically convex neighborhood such that the double cone generated by any couple of points is included in the neighborhood and is compact.
21:29
@ValterMoretti Right, that's a classic result of Penrose.
If the spacetime is causal, one should be able to restrict the neighborhood to obtain a globally hyperbolic (sub)spacetime
In general strongly causality is required but after Sanchez and Bernal causality is enough
But that's not what I was looking for. I don't think their double cones have to be geodesically convex themselves.
No, they are not
But Hawking-Ellis, Beem and Ehrlich, and some others claim it's possible to have sets that are causally convex AND geodesically convex at the same time
but the portion of spacetime is (strongly) causal and double cone are compact: the space is globally hyperbolic
21:32
I's really hard to prove because causally convex sets give no information about spacelike geodesics
Regarding convexity of double cones the only result I know (and I think the only exists) is due to a n Italian collegue of mine
Let me some seconds to loom the paper
look for the paper
Convex neighborhoods for Lipschitz connections
and sprays
by E. Minguzzi Monatsh Math (2015) 177:569–625
long paper
Lipschitz connections? Lol what did he need those for?
Yes he deal with very weak conditions regarding regularity of the metric
sorry I am writing with my phone and it is a bit difficult
he dealS
However, I do not think it is relevant for your original problem
You only need a globally hyperbolic neighborhood of $p$
...I do? Are those automatically causally convex when you consider the whole spacetime?
"those"? Are you referring to double cones?
21:40
The double cones should be causally convex.
@0ßelö7 You changed your picture? Who is that now?
@ValterMoretti I'm working right now, I'll read those papers and if I have more questions can I email you?
I see, you are referring to causal convexity, I was referring to geodesical convexity!
@ValterMoretti I am referring to a set that is both causally convex and geodesically convex.
The claim is that a strongly causal spacetime always has sets that are both.
Ok, however I do not think it is relevant for you problem (that of the point $p$ and all that)
21:42
This is a separate problem
@Jasper ethan klein
the mortal enemy of @BalarkaSen's avatar
OMG, that is crazy.
OK, contact me via email if you need. Please notice (a) I am terribly busy (b) I should refresh my mind about these issues
Since I am presently working with QFT and quanternionic QM
@ValterMoretti I've talked to my advisor about this but he's rusty too. We're doing GR on hypersurfaces so we don't need any hyperbolic stuff or causality :)
Maybe there is a much more easy approach to solve your problem...but I do not know.
@ValterMoretti Like I said, it's claimed to be true in Hawking and Ellis, but when I read Hawking's original paper he uses a different argument
21:46
My impression is that we are trying to kill a fly with a gun
4
@ValterMoretti That's what G. Todorova (maybe you have heard of her) said, but she didn't want to discuss details with me until after her upcoming conference
OK, now I must stop :)
thanks, cheers
@0ßelö7 cheers!
21:51
@EmilioPisanty "mean curvature flow has applications to the renormalization group flow in string theory" :'D
@Semiclassical pls tell me you are a fluid mechanics wizard
@0ßelö7 Conformal maps are used a lot in electromagnetic problems too...people usually use tables for those
no, I'm done with that
I have two fluids classes
Anonymous
Kyle is a fluid mechanics guy iirc. :P
why the :p
Anonymous
21:57
@0ßelö7 He doesn't come around much
you know who was a fluids guy?
Chris White
@BernardoMeurer remembers
Anonymous
I've heard of him a lot in this chat :D
he was the best of us
Anonymous
Wasn't he an astrophysicist ?
full GR black hole MHD
21:59
@0ßelö7 I remember him. why did he leave?
Anonymous
"Black hole accretion, astrophysical fluid dynamics, the numerics of general-relativistic magnetohydrodynamics, high-performance computing"
Anonymous
Lots of cool stuff
@lılostafa he was removed as room owner because a troll got a rise out of him
I don't know exactly what happened and we get in trouble for speculating so I'll leave it at that
I have talked to him since then, fwiw
Anonymous
Good to have contacts with knowledgeable people. I need to find someone who specializes in circuits and stuff.
Anonymous
22:03
The EE chat is always so empty
@Blue for sure, but email is terrible compared to a whiteboard
@0ßelö7 This room was so different back then. DavidZ was quite active. The two main users in theis room where ManishEarth and CrazyBuddy. Chris White, tpg, and others were active too.
No ACM, No JR (in the chat)
what?
Chris White was here a year ago
ACM was more active back then
Manish has been gone since I've been here (3 years)
tpg was more active, yes
I mean 3 ~4 years ago
many of the current users weren't even born then
Anonymous
22:07
@0ßelö7 Agreed. But that's the second best option when it's not possible to be physically present.
Anonymous
BTW ManishEarth has dumped physics and moved to CS now :P
@Blue Especially with (let's face it) older individuals, text conversation can be challenging
@Blue good, physics is a dead discipline
Anonymous
@0ßelö7 Says the mathematician who wants to increase GDP
I think math is dying too
@0ßelö7 I clearly remember when ChrisWhite hit 10k rep. and when Qmechanics's rep was well below 20k :)
22:09
the golden era was the 70s
I was born in the wrong generation
Anonymous
You wouldn't have had laptops then
@Blue Why is he still a mod here?!
@lılostafa historical inertia
Anonymous
@lılostafa I think mods are permanent
Anonymous
(As long as they perform their bare minimum duties)
22:11
@Blue if I were a mod we'd be able to test that theory >:3
> 14C air
oh come on
they're making me interpolate the properties
Anonymous
@lılostafa I need your help
Dec 10 '13 at 7:20, by user54412
One day the prof did some hand waving with representations (basically a Clebsch-Gordan transformation, I later realized). I asked how he got the result, and all he said was, "That's just group theory. Moving on..." At this point I had two solid years of abstract algebra under my belt, and nothing he was doing resembled group theory in any way, either because it wasn't or because the notation was obfuscated.
Anonymous
I can't understand what short-circuit inductance is
I was in the room when Chris White posted this^ :)
@Blue ::turns off GPU fan::
wonder if this will actually warm my feet
Anonymous
22:15
You need to explain it to me as if I am a newborn
Anonymous
I understand nothing of this
Anonymous
Short-circuit inductance is the inductance when one of the primary winding or the secondary winding of the transformer is short-circuited and measured from the other winding. This value is often called informally as leakage inductance of the transformer. But the term leakage inductance which is in the electromagnetic literature is defined as an inductance caused by a magnetic flux (leakage flux) which is interlinked with one winding of a primary winding or a secondary winding and does not interlink with the other winding. So a confusion is caused by called short-circuit inductance as leakag...
Anonymous
1
Q: What do they mean by "short-circuited" here?

Blue"Short-circuit inductance is the inductance when one of the primary winding or the secondary winding of the transformer is short-circuited and measured from the other winding." I can't understand the part of the sentence in italic. What do they mean by "short-circuited" in this context? Even the...

Anonymous
The answers there make no sense
@Blue WHat is the problem with the definition here?
Anonymous
22:20
@lılostafa What does the definition even mean? If there is a short circuit across the inductor the ends of the inductor should be at the same voltage, isn't it? What does "short-circuit inductance" stand for?
Anonymous
@0ßelö7 Unless they are geeky like JR ;)
Anonymous
Well, even voice communication with old professor's is sometimes terribly difficult
Anonymous
Our (old) physics professor knows his stuff...but is terrible at communicating
yeah there's nothing worse than being 15 minutes into a meeting and then realizing the other guy understood something completely different
@Blue Have you studied the concept of impedance?
Anonymous
22:28
@lılostafa Yes
What is important here is the impedance of that part of the circuit (which is not zero, it has a non-zero imaginary part)
Anonymous
@lılostafa Which part of circuit?
The short circuited part
Anonymous
Anonymous
I can't see any short-circuit in the wikipedia diagram
Anonymous
22:31
There's no connecting wire across any inductor
vzn
vzn
@Valter hi again, fyi our guest speaker sessions remain popular, you were requested as a guest, plz continue to keep in mind, understand you are busy, but yet you do seem to have time for cyberspace :) physics.meta.stackexchange.com/questions/7783/…
@Blue You were asking what happens if we short circuit the secondary of a transformer, right?
Anonymous
@lılostafa Not really. I'm trying to understand what the wikipedia page means by $L_{sc1}$ and $L_{sc2}$
Anonymous
(In that diagram)
Anonymous
They say those are short-circuit inductances
Anonymous
22:33
I don't see how
Anonymous
There's no short-circuiting in the diagram in the first place
Anonymous
BTW what does the dotted inductor in that diagram represent?
Hi, everybody.
Ooooh, circuits! I know those.
@Blue It took me a while to refresh my memory about it (from 5 years ago!); I think that circuit is just the real model of the transfomers taking $L_{sc}$ into account. For measurement you need to just short-circuit it (as you said)
Anonymous
@DanielSank Aaaaahh...I need you :'D
Anonymous
22:47
Could you explain that thingy?
Circuits are just topology.
@0ßelö7 False.
@DanielSank Well, and Yang-Mills theory too.
@0ßelö7 Correct.
Ok @Blue what do you want to know.
The first sentence of the Wiki article is quite clear.
@Blue The diagram is the "equivalent circuit", as it says itself
22:49
Yang-Mills is really catchy. What's something popular named after someone but isn't a really catchy name?
Anonymous
@DanielSank I don't get it. There is no short-circuiting in the diagram they have given in the Wikipedia page. What is the physical significance of $L_{sc}$ ?
Well first of all, did you notice the text in the diagram that says "short" and "open"?
Anonymous
@DanielSank I noticed. I don't know what that means. How can it be both open and short?
It can't. They're saying to consider the case where it's open or short.
Anonymous
Alright. Then?
22:53
@Blue Schroedinger's circuit
3
Anonymous
@0ßelö7 klelk
is that a stoke victim laughing?
Anonymous
It's a superposition of lel and kek
Anonymous
Schrodinger's lol
@Blue the point is that the ideal transformer is supposed to have only a coupling constant, but in this (closer to reality model) each side has a self-inductance too (i.e., all of the flux of the other side doesn't link this side)
physical significance of $L_{sc}$ ^
22:57
@Blue turning off the fan increased the temp by 25C...that has a significant effect on the heat of the room
had to turn on the AC
the axiom of choice?
Is it clear now? @Blue
that AC is always off @LeakyNun
@0ßelö7 lol
Anonymous
@lılostafa I'm trying to understand. Give me a couple of minutes
Anonymous
22:58
Thanks for the help though
@LeakyNun if I never use AC I never have to check if my functions are measurable
it's the perfect mathematical plan
@Blue and it seems that dotted-line inductor is just $L_{sc}$ and shows the equivalent circuit of the non-ideal transformer when we short-circuit the secondary of it. The solid line shows the equivalent circuit when we open-circuit it.
Anonymous
@lılostafa You mean for an ideal transformer coil $\phi= Mi$ only? ($i$ is the current in the other coil)
Anonymous
$M$ is the coefficient of mutual inductance
23:05
Yes
the surface area of an open cylinder is $\pi d\ell$, right?
Anonymous
So they are separating the real inductor coil into ideal inductor coil + short-circuit inductor coil to take into account the reality?
yeah exactly
Anonymous
Gotcha. Pheeeeeew
Anonymous
I owe you something
23:07
hellooo
see the second part (leakage current) here: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transformer#Real_transformer
need geometry help
@0ßelö7 yes true (assuming d is the diameter)
Anonymous
@0ßelö7 Who are you, kid? And why did you hack the great nerdy mathematician 0celo's account?
23:09
@Blue np
@Blue I am him
@0ßelö7 np
I just don't know any geometry
Anonymous
@0ßelö7 Not believable :P
@Blue I'm analysis now
Anonymous
23:11
@lılostafa I'll gift you a 100 mangoes if you ever visit India
Anonymous
:D
but really this problem about heat conduction on a cylinder is taking too long
Anonymous
@0ßelö7 Is it a physics problem or a math one?
physics
Anonymous
Then you can ask here....John is good at thermo
23:14
a hot cylinder is in a breeze, calculate the initial $\partial T/\partial t$
Anonymous
Sounds like a question on convection
yes, but it is not quick
Anonymous
For heat loss by convection $\frac{dQ}{dt}=hA\Delta T$, but I guess you already know that
yes, hence why I needed to check the $A$
and I think $\dot Q=mc_v \partial T/\partial t$
Anonymous
You need to consider both inner and outer surfaces I think
23:17
it's solid
Anonymous
Oh
I need to find the density and $c_v$ now, but the problem doesn't say anything beyond steel
wonderful
the TA is gonna love this one
Anonymous
You don't need necessarily need $c_v$. It's will be just $mc\Delta{T}$ where $c$ is the specific heat for the process.
$c$ or $c_v$, doesn't matter for incompressible solids
the table has $c_p$
I just need some number
Anonymous
"An equivalent statement of the Dulong–Petit law in modern terms is that, regardless of the nature of the substance, the specific heat capacity c of a solid element (measured in joule per kelvin per kilogram) is equal to 3R/M, where R is the gas constant (measured in joule per kelvin per mole) and M is the molar mass (measured in kilogram per mole). Thus, the heat capacity per mole of many elements is 3R."
Anonymous
23:21
Use this ^
moles? what kind of engineer are you
I'm just going with standard carbon steel
yolo
Anonymous
Just use a calculator to convert from moles :P
why do that when I can read off the metals table in the book
Anonymous
@0ßelö7 That's another proof that I'm not an engineer XD
Anonymous
I'd happily be a chemist...but physics attracts me more
23:26
.5C/sec
seems reasonable!
ok, time to typeset other fluids homework
23:55
@vzn if you want to keep discussing that, it might be better to use the backup room because I'm only able to get online sporadically these days

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