Guys, so we have
$$
a(t)=\frac{dv(x(t))}{dt}=\frac{dx(t)}{dt}\cdot\frac{dv(x(t))}{dx}=v(x(t))\frac{dv(x(t))}{dx}.
$$
However, if we write
$$
F(x(t))=mv(t)\frac{dv(x(t))}{dx},
$$
then how does the integral make sense? Shouldn’t it then be:
$$
\int_{t_0}^t F(x(t’))\ dt’?
$$