@0celouvsky It is, but I can't think of a quotient that I wouldn't describe as basically setting the things that you quotient by to zero, except for cases where the notion of "zero" doesn't make sense.
@Phase The feedback is an automatic message if the reviewer chooses a particular reason to reject. Don't read too much "negativity" into its specific formulation
Oh ok no worries, I guess I can see how the way it's laid out in the page might give that impression, I just wanted to argue against it in case there was a valid reason : )
Atm I'm using Shankar's Principles of QM, as I found Feynman too wordy and Dirac too.. uh... Diracc-y, but is Shankar's good enough to learn or should it just be an extra resource?
@Phase, here's a fun brain teaser: Think about the standard Heisenberg relation $[x,p]=i\hbar\operatorname{id}$ or more generally $[A,B]=c \operatorname{id}$ for any complex constant $c$. If these are operators on a finite-dimensional Hilbert space, you know what the trace of the identity is. Take the trace of both sides of the equation. What do you get?
@0celouvsky That we might require the wavefunction to be continuous in order to solve the SE (which is really just because no physicist wants to learn about weak derivatives and whatnot) does not make the value at a point any more physically meaningful
@ACuriousMind Maybe, but what you're saying is that the value doesn't mean anything on a set of measure zero. I've shown the chat how to construct a pretty horrible set of measure zero.
So anyways @Phase, you'll have to deal with infinite dimensional spaces sometimes in QM (basically the only finite dimensional ones you typically learn about are the ones spanned by spin states). However, it's an amazing fact that you can deal with operators in QM by means of very close analogies with "infinite-dimensional matrices". Many properties still hold.
Is this just a consequence of the fact that the Matrix interpretation must be equivalent to the function interpretation? And that these functions can span continuous domains?
@Phase the different "pictures" of quantum mechanics don't really have any effect (they're just pictures, after all :D) on things. Sometimes one of them is just more convenient, but they're all saying the same things.
If they're all saying the same thing, is the necessity of infinite dimensions for operators and state vectors a consequence of the fact that in wave mechanics wavefunctions are defined over continuous domains frequently?
Ahaha I guess I'm doing the thing I said I try to avoid, i.e. trying to explain things with words incorrectly rather than just looking at maths. Sorry 'bout that!
@0celouvsky Yes. You can show that all kernels are ideals and all ideals are kernels (of the projection to the quotient ring), so "is a kernel of a ring homomorphism" is in fact an alternative definition of "ideal".
@Phase Using words is not bad in itself, but the language around "wave mechanics" is often unhelpfully muddled - I tend to avoid talking about "waves" as such
Given some $\rho:G\to \operatorname{Aut}(V)$, a representation, any $G$-invariant inner product arises as a direct sum (with tuneable coefficients) of $G$-invariant inner products on the irreducible summands
(take $G$ to be a compact Lie group to have existence etc)