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17:00
Hi @ACuriousMind, not sure if you remember but we discussed how $\langle x| s \rangle $ doesn't make sense in QM because spin states don't exist in the same space as position states. Would I be right in stating then that it doesn't make sense to ask if they are commutable since he commutator doesn't have a set of common functions to evaluate?
If you hadn't already guessed I'm still trying to understand what vacuum fluctuations actually are ...
Basically the vacuum is like $\approx e^{itH_{int}} |0\rangle$
With $t$ sent to infinity
or something, I forget
So you end up with something that can be written as a sum of Fock states?
@Alex Well, "commuting" you have to ask for operators, not states. But you can ask whether position and spin commute - when the physicist writes $x$ and $s$ as operators on a state in the combined spin-position space, then they often mean the operators $x\otimes 1$ and $1\otimes s$ (which commute and therefore allow us to use basis kets $\lvert x,s\rangle$).
17:01
There is a little physicist magic involved
At some point Peskin says "Since the perturbation is small we can assume that the Fock states are close to the interacting states"
That is where the magic trick happens
(The trick is that you can't assume)
Or you can I guess, since it works after all
I think at this point i'll see how much of Peskin and Schroeder chap 4 I can understand ...
It's not too hard to understand
There's a lot of formulas to work out though
You have to expand field operators a lot
So the interacting vacuum doesn't have a number of particles because when you act with the particle number operator you're effectively acting on a superposition of Fock states?
@JohnRennie Oh pick me pick me!
@DanielSank yes?
17:04
If we ignore all the rigorous problems, one can express the interacting vacuum in terms of the free vacuum as $\lvert \Omega\rangle = \lim_{t\to\infty(1-\mathrm{i}\epsilon)} \left(\exp(-\mathrm{i}e_\Omega t)\langle\Omega\vert 0\rangle\right)^{-1} \exp(-\mathrm{i}HT)\lvert 0\rangle$.
Well that is true even in free theories
A lot of states are superpositions
And "particle number" isn't really an observable
@JohnRennie Are you trying to understand spontaneously created particles, or vacuum fluctuations in a more pedestiran sense of e.g. why an LC circuit in its ground state has nonzero mean square voltage?
Since particle states aren't physical
Which, apart from the ugly normalization factor, is the $\exp(-\mathrm{i}HT)\lvert 0\rangle$ with sending $t$ to infinity that @Slereah mentioned.
and the operator $\exp(-\mathrm{i}HT)$ acting on $\lvert 0\rangle$ produces some sum of Fock states?
17:06
yes
@ACuriousMind Okay thanks.
@JohnRennie Well...yes. The problem is that rigorously the $\lvert \Omega\rangle$ and the $\lvert 0\rangle$ can't live in the same space, but if we assume they do, then yes.
@ACuriousMind So when we draw those vacuum diagrams we are actually calculating the expression you wrote down?
The vacuum diagrams are actually not calculated at all
@JohnRennie If you mean the "vacuum bubbles" diagram, you're computing $\langle \Omega \vert \Omega \rangle$.
17:07
They make the calculations diverge
There's only one diagram for the vacuum state
The empty diagram
All other diagrams, the vacuum bubbles, make things diverge
That's where you have to use renormalization
Basically the vacuum bubbles correspond to the vacuum energy
@ACuriousMind silly question but what is the physical significance of $\langle \Omega \vert \Omega \rangle$?
That's the probability of transition from the vacuum to the vacuum
Which should be 1 in most theories
@JohnRennie Naively, it's the zero point function, which has no evident meaning. However, if you look closely at the expression I used to define the vacuum, one sees that the diagrammatic series in the vacuum bubbles computes the vacuum energy.
So when physicists say the vacuum isn't fluctuating they mean $\vert \Omega \rangle$ isn't time dependent? And the bubble diagrams are just part of the computation of $\vert \Omega \rangle$?
@JohnRennie no
er, maybe
17:13
Ah, dash it I thought this seemed to easy :-(
Well measurements are still probabilistic
"Zero point fluctuations" are in a logical/semantic superposition of time dependent and not time dependent.
If you make two measurements on the vacuum you might get two results
^ That
That is what the fluctuation means
17:13
If you make measurements, you get time dependent fluctuations even in the vacuum state.
Yes, but that doesn't mean anything is fluctuating in the sense of bobbling about as a function of time.
Well, note that immediately after each measurement, the system is not in the vacuum state.
The fact that you're making measurements is a critical part of why there are fluctuations in time.
Independent measurements of any quantum system that isn't an eigenfunction will return different values ..
Note, however, that even if you let the system decay back to the ground/vacuum state following each measurement, you still get a fluctuating sequence of measurement results.
Well the vacuum, by definition (at least the free vacuum) is Poincaré invariant
Hence it is time independant
17:15
@JohnRennie Yes. That's why I have repeatedly said that "vacuum fluctuation" is an unnecessarily mysterious term for that elementary property of quantum mechanics.
The state that you measure each time can be exactly the same, i.e. $|0\rangle$, but your sequence of measurements of, say, $\hat{x}$ is stochastic, a.k.a. "fluctuating".
In this case, it's not the state that's fluctuating, it's just the measurement results that are fluctuating.
@DanielSank Yes, that^
People call that "vacuum fluctuations" or "quantum noise".
Are interacting vacua assumed to be Poincaré invariant?
In flat space, anyway
As m y colleague and I remind each other often: "quantum noise is not noise"
Of course, it is sort of noise, but not in the usual sense.
17:17
@JohnRennie The main problem is that there is a pop-sci meaning of "vacuum fluctuation" that somehow has come to mean those vacuum bubbles we just talked about, and from which people derive all sorts of silly claims. I'm 99% certain you won't ever decode what that's supposed to mean rigorously.
I'm guessing if you have degrees of liberty for the vacuum maybe not
@ACuriousMind That's just one manifestation of vacuum fluctuations where the operator you care about is $\hat{n}$.
@DanielSank I don't know what the operator $\hat{n}$ is when trying to act on the interacting vacuum.
@ACuriousMind if we can sort of write the inteacrting vacuum as a sum of Fock states and hope no-one looks too closely then isn't $\hat{n}$ defined by the way it acts on that sum?
@ACuriousMind Why not?
17:21
@JohnRennie Well, yes. The problem is that you can't evaluate $\langle n \rangle$ on that state, at all. No one knows how the "sum of Fock states" actually looks, and the whole machinery of perturbative QFT is cleverly set up so that we can't evaluate operators that "shouldn't" be able to act on the vacuum. Basically, you can only compute the expectation of operators that are polynomials in the fields.
Ah OK. Would evaluating the number operator require a non-perturbative approach?
@DanielSank Because the interacting vacuum is not part of the Fock space. We pretend it is to derive the LSZ formalism and that works mysteriously well, but I don't know how to write down the number operator in an interacting theory - you are not allowed to use the creation and annihilation operators, as those only are for the free theory.
@ACuriousMind You've mentioned this several times before and I don't get it.
@JohnRennie No, because you can't define it in the interacting theory. There is no notion of "particle" in the non-perturbative interacting theory.
If I have a single mode system, I can define the number operator.
If I have a two mode system, I can define the number operators for each mode.
Where does this all go wrong?
17:23
@DanielSank You don't have "modes" in the interacting theory. The quantum field is not a collection of harmonic oscillators anymore
But you don't have modes in an interacting theory - do you??
Well you can have notions of particles in interacting QFT
But it becomes complicated
You have like weird non-linear superposition of solitons
@ACuriousMind I don't believe you.
Why don't I have modes?
I can list the modes.
Define "mode"
Put a box around the universe. Bam. Modes.
17:26
@DanielSank same reason you don't have normal modes in anharmonic oscillators
@JohnRennie What? Sure you do.
I can have an anharmonic mode.
The basic problem is that you can't write field solutions as sums of existing solutions
Since the EoM is nonlinear
Particle-in-a-box-is a good example.
@DanielSank Because the quantum field no longer fulfills the Klein-Gordon equation, but a modified equation, which also changes the canonical momentum, so that the Fourier modes no longer fulfill the commutation relations of creation and annihilation operators.
The whole reason free QFT has modes is because Fourier transforming the fields leads to the Fourier modes having those nice relations.
@ACuriousMind, suppose I have two particles-in-boxes.
And I couple them through a spring.
Does that system have modes?
17:28
Probably? But we're not putting particles here anywhere. We're starting from an object $\phi(x)$ that fulfills an equation of motion, and there's nothing inherently oscillating about it (while there is about a spring)
I mean
I guess technically you have eigenstates of the momentum operator
If you want to consider those modes
@ACuriousMind Ok, but as usual, I need to understand where the mode idea breaks down instead of just talking about QFT where it has already broken down :)
Just when it's getting interesting I have to go and get dressed up in preparation for a night's drinking ...
@JohnRennie Priorities, man!
@JohnRennie is gonna get some scrumpy
17:29
scrumpy?
@Slereah if I never drink scrumpy again it will be too soon!
It is some kind of british hillbilly cider
@DanielSank we were taking about life in rural Somerset in the 70s.
Why was alcoholism such a major problem? Because there was frak all else to do!
@DanielSank I think it would be better if you told me why you so easily believe it for the free field. I only believe that there are particle modes for the free field because I have seen how you can transform it to make it look like an infinite collection of harmonic oscillators. I don't know how to make an interacting field look like a collection of systems that have modes, so I don't know what a "mode" would be for it.
@JohnRennie Indeed.
17:32
Define what you mean exactly by "modes", for a start
If you mean Fourier modes then certainly not
And I'm afraid I also have to go soon-ish
Since those can only be defined for linear systems
Ok, let's continue this later.
I have to go too.
@Slereah Yes, we should do that.
On that note I'm off to drink some of Chester's finest real ale - and no scrumpy (though Chester has some very nice dry ciders)
@JohnRennie have some Old Rosie =D
17:42
Interacting field theory is not a fun field because I'm 90% sure that literally none of them are fully solved
MAYBE massless Thirring model
How can I turn on mathjax
On chat
17
A: Any chance of MathJax in chat?

Ilmari KaronenAs a workaround while this request is pending, there exist several client-side workarounds that can be used to enable LaTeX rendering in chat, including: ChatJax, a set of bookmarklets by robjohn to enable dynamic MathJax support in chat. Commonly used in the Mathematics chat room. An altern...

18:11
@ACuriousMind For the operator $\hat{S}_z$, which is the observable of the z component of spin operator, I have in Griffiths that the eigenvectors of this operator are given as
\begin{align}
S_1 &= \begin{bmatrix}
1 \\
0
\end{bmatrix}
\end{align}
and
\begin{align}
S_2 &= \begin{bmatrix}
0 \\
1
\end{bmatrix}
\end{align}
I understand that this obervables only has two nondegenerate eigenvalues, so it therefore has two eigenvectors, which are also theorefore a basis for the two dimensional vector space. How do we know that the eigenvectors are of this form? Does it not matter since we are in a
 
1 hour later…
19:24
posted on November 18, 2016 by Ghotir

I'm trying to understand how I lost reputation. (Note that I am not necessarily disputing it - I'm more confused than anything else.) According to my reputation for today, I lost one point: -1 Why is nuclear waste more dangerous than the original nuclear fuel. I did not write the question, nor did I write an answer, nor did I even write a comment (which may be th

@PhysicsMeta you big tease
 
2 hours later…
21:27
@ACuriousMind, thank you, I think I understand better now what Daniel Sank meant. I'll start to do that =)
21:47
@Mew, I realized I calculated the problem incorrectly; I think the right answer is 17690.4
22:07
@heather w00t
@DanielSank, I did a bunch of practice integration problems and I think I understand what I'm doing a whole lot better. =)
22:21
@heather that's great!
@DanielSank, What all do I need to know of calculus? Do I need to know multivariable calculus, differential equations, vector calculus...? After I finish practicing/learning single-variable calculus, I mean.
22:44
@heather I think you should make sure you can actually solve problems using single variable calculus.
Solve some physics problems.
Then probably learn two/three variable calculus and again solve problems
Then maybe learn basic differentia l equations. Just the simple stuff.
@DanielSank, okay. Where could I find some good physics problems to solve?
23:09
@heather Traditionally, a physics book.
@DanielSank, good point =)
Mew
Mew
@heather, I didn't get that answer
@Mew, oh...what did you get?
Mew
Mew
no
i did get ur answer
sorry
good job
@heather, do you know the difference between definite and indefinite integrals?
@Mew, sure, definite are ones with the limits, and you don't need to put in $c$, the answer is certain, and indefinite integrals you do need the $c$, because one isn't actually sure of which of several lines it could be.
Mew
Mew
23:12
good
for your next problem, please solve the following indefinite integral
$\int 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2} + \frac{x^3}{6}$
hmm
yep try that one
and add $dx$ at the end ;P
okay =)
After that, let's do a physics problem.
Mew
Mew
Also if we call the answer to the above integral I, and we say that I = 1 when x = 0 solve for the value of c
I think I messed up the $c$'s, but:
$\frac{x^4}{24}+\frac{x^3}{6}+\frac{x^2}{2}+x+4c$
is what I got.
Mew
Mew
not bad
@heather, the 4c bit is wrong but the rest is correct
23:17
is it just $c$?
Mew
Mew
it looks like you split the question up into 4 integrals and got 4 constants
this is a valid approach
yeah, that's what I did
Mew
Mew
but the value of each constant isn't necessarily equal
so you can't say it is 4c
oh...
Mew
Mew
but you can say it is a + b + c + d for instance
23:18
ah, gotcha
Mew
Mew
and what is the sum of several constants?
just another constant
so we can replace that big mess by just a single $c$
okay.
Mew
Mew
so the answer becomes
$c + x + \frac{x^2}{2} + \frac{x^3}{6} + \frac{x^4}{24}$
now I said that the integral has a value of 1 when x = 0
so it can be easily seen by substituting $x =0$ that $c$ must take on the value of 1
so the final answer becomes
$1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2} + \frac{x^3}{6} + \frac{x^4}{24}$
wow, that makes tons of sense!
Mew
Mew
now look back at the original itnegral I asked you to solve
do you notice any similarities between the answer and the integral?
they are the same (except for an additional term in the answer)
23:21
there's a term with the same power for every one except the $x^4$ term. The denominators are all multiples of $2$. The constant is 1 in both cases.
Mew
Mew
yes, they are exactly the same if not for the x^4/24 bit
maybe the denominator is related to the power too?
Mew
Mew
@heather did you know that $e^x = 1 + x + \frac{x^2}{2} + \frac{x^3}{6} + ....$
where the donominator is the factorial of the power
no, I didn't
that's cool!
Mew
Mew
so this approach can prove that $\int e^x = e^x$
a very useful result in calculus
23:23
the derivative of $e^x = e^x$ as well, right?
Mew
Mew
correct
which makes sense because integrals and derivatives are inverses
Mew
Mew
yep and you can prove it both ways by looking at 1 + x + x^2/2 + ...
@heather yes, and it's really important.
Mew
Mew
@heather you asked someone about what to do after being able to calculate integrals
in my opinion after you can calculate them, you MUST understand exactly what they are
have a physical idea of what the calculation is actually doing
in physics this is more important than being able to compute the results
many integrals in physics are unsolvable but it is essential to udnerstand what they mean
23:27
Simpson's rule is pretty useful for integration
isn't what's happening is riemann sums? like where you pick a certain rectangle width and set them side by side under the curve representing the function you are integrating, such that their height is just under the curve, and then do the same thing with the height just above the curve, and find the area of both sets of rectangles, and then find the area between the two? And then you can make the width of the rectangles smaller for increased accuracy? @Mew
@KyleKanos My rule for integrals is looking at them really hard until God shows me the way
Mew
Mew
@heather some of what you said is confusing but I think your on the right track
that's definitely enough of a understanding for now
@Mew, okay
@BernardMeurer You're better than me. I immediately plug it into either Wolfram Alpha or wxMaxima and if no answer appears, use Programming
23:29
It's just the area under the curve.
Why make it more complicated than that?
@KyleKanos Tell that to my prof when he's correcting my exams
how are you guys exposed to lagrangian/hamiltonian mechanics for the first time?
@DanielSank, yeah...that too =)
@zounds In a classroom?
i have a bachelor's in math, and i took a classical mechanics course
23:30
@zounds He told me it wouldn't hurt, and that I would be fine, but then there was blood everywhere
they just threw lagrangians at us without any motivation, and i decided physics was not for me an dropped the course
@DanielSank Dood
I found out
Mew
Mew
@zounds they were motivated as an alternativive to Newtonian mechanics that produces the same results
That if the set of points for with a function is not continuous is countable (note, not finite, but just countable) then the function is integrable and the integral is the same as if it were continuous
because they'll have 0 measure
Mew
Mew
by minimizing a lagrangian laws of physics can come out
23:31
It's like some magic shit
@BernardMeurer Yes.
Mew
Mew
and you can choose the lagrangian so that NEwton's mechanics comes out
so it's just a usefult ool
The ends justify the means
@DanielSank, what was the physics problem?
Mew
Mew
LIke chess, how do you explain to a kid why you make a certain move
WEll you have to be able to see the end game to explain why you did what you did
No way, reactionary chess is the way to go
Mew
Mew
23:34
lol
I need a chess board
Anyone wants to sell me theirs if they happen to have a good one?
Ebay
Craigslist
Home Depot / Lowes
game stores
target
walmart
Actually, now that I've said it, I think I do want to try making a good chess board
I have some nice stain and paint, might be a nice project for a Saturday
@KyleKanos No craigslist here
Or Home Depot
or Lowes
or Target
or Walmart
23:45
@BernardMeurer Ooo...become a millionaire by inventing it then
Ebay is a good idea though
@KyleKanos lol, it exists, craigslist, but no one uses it
Ah.
Well Brazilians suck then (no offense)
@KyleKanos I live in Portugal :P
Even worse :P
I had some Portuguese friends back in HS.
@KyleKanos Yeah, I don't like it here to be honest
23:49
Tried dating one of them; she didn't even respond.
@KyleKanos Try Slovenians
Don't know any
@KyleKanos Yes you do, Trump's wife is Slovenian
Okay, I don't know any personally
Call 1800-SLOVENIA
23:52
Not sure if real
Also not sure if necessary
I've got a nice Germano-Irish wife
and it's absolutely amazing
I use it sometimes when I'm lonely, the swedes are always nice
@KyleKanos You have a good job, you have a platoon of children, and you married a good looking girl?
Go away
@BernardMeurer Check, Check, and Check
@KyleKanos I'm calling a Swede and talking shit about you
Oh no
They closed
Dammit
23:57
Well I'm going to bathe the kids
Adieu!

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