How does he derive this? Note that $t_1$ is an arbitrary point in time (presumably $t_1\in[t_i, t_f]$). I tried it using some kind of Euler-Lagrange derivation, but I don't arrive at his identity:
There was an FQXi essay competition on this subject in Spring 2015:
"Trick or Truth: the Mysterious Connection Between Physics and Mathematics"
Here is the home page with links to winners and other entries:
http://fqxi.org/community/essay/winners/2015.1
The competition is meant to encourage an ...
If $\theta$ is the maximum angle for the pendulum's swing, then should $Tcos\theta=mg$ or should $T=mgcos\theta$.
I think that the components must be done in the perpendicular directions $Tcos\theta=mg$ as the bob can't go any further. Can anybody please help me by telling me what would be the...
@EmilioPisanty : This policy was discussed most recently in this meta post, but if you think it should be non-CW, I can revert it. Btw. the current question formulation is not particularly clear unless you are familiar with the links already.
I have a simple question regarding spherical coordinates, why is the infinitesimal displacement of the polar coordinate given by $$dl_{\theta} = rd \theta,$$ is $rd\theta$ not the arc length of the sector rather than the magnitude of the vector in the $\theta$ direction?
@JohnJack the length differential has to have units of length. $d\theta$ ensures it is the unit magnitude, but whatever the radius is, it has to be multiplied by $r$ to properly represent the length in the theta direction
@0celo7 lots of them. It's a term commonly used in pop-sci. Any of them who have looked into physics beyond what school requires would probably have seen the term
Hi guys! I am trying to calculate the cross section of the process p p > jet jet via MadGraph. The cross section in higher than the usual one (of a factor 100). I cut the soft and collinear b-jets.. but the cross section remains high. What are other background processes I should consider to simulate the right crosssection?
@Secret There are no details to iron out. What you wrote there is $5\mathbb{Z}$, not $\mathbb{Z}/5\mathbb{Z}$, and is not finite. The only finite subgroup of $\mathbb{Z}$ is the trivial one consisting of only the identity.
@Danu I might be occasionally bored but not that bored :P
@Bass Don't use that weird "chain rule", I'm not even sure that makes sense. Just use that $\frac{\delta}{\delta x(t_1)}$ and $\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}t}$ commute - the variation of the derivative is the derivative of the variation, $\mathrm{d}_t \delta q = \delta \mathrm{d}_t q$ in physicists' notation should look familiar to you from the derivation of the Euler-Lagrange equations.
@0celo7 Barely
Then, to get the squared time derivative, integrate by parts appropriately before actually carrying out the differentiation.
To derive the EL equations, you use the chain rule too, like $\delta S=\int dt\left(\frac{\partial L}{\partial x}\delta x+\frac{\partial L}{\partial\dot x}\delta\dot x\right)$, or is there another way?
@0celo7 Humans just belong to the matter content of the universe. Are you saying that some of the matter in the universe doesn't obey the equations of motion because it is organized into conglomerates we call "human"?
@Slereah You mean some variation $x\mapsto x+\epsilon y$? But then again, to get the variation of $S$ under that variation, you need the chain rule, because $L$ depends on both $x$ and $\dot x$, no?
Today I was able to used the sentence "One cannot simply explode a singularity into Mordor" naturally in a conversation. Quantum physics was right. Anything not forbidden must occur
Of course the time independent one comes out from the time dependent one by separation of variables, but I get $E = i\hbar 1/\phi \partial \phi/\partial t$ along the way where $\phi$ is the time-dependent part of the wavefunction. What does that, physically, mean?
On a related note, instead of going from the time dependent equation to the time independent equation, how can I go from the time independent (the one I understand better) equation to the time dependent equation?
I feel an answer to the first question will give an answer to the second.
@BalarkaSen I have a set of the form $K\times[0,\epsilon)$ where $K$ is compact and I know that my function $\sigma$ is positive on some open $U\supset K$
Yes, I am not sure why or how that comes up. That was my original question. You need to solve $E = i\hbar \cdot 1/\phi \cdot \partial \phi/\partial t$, the geometric/physical significance of which I am unclear on.
@BalarkaSen I'm not sure what you mean by significance. It's the differential equation you get when you make the separation of variables ansatz. You solve it by using $\frac{1}{\phi}\frac{\partial \phi}{\partial t} = \frac{\partial \ln(\phi)}{\partial t}$ and then just integrating to find $\ln(\phi) = -\mathrm{i}\hbar t$.
I think of the wavefunction (well, it's modulus squared) as representing probability density of my particle. Why should the derivative of it's time-dependent part $\phi(t)$ have anything to do with the total energy of the particle?
@BalarkaSen Oh, to understand that, you must first understand how energy and time are connected in classical physics: In the Lagrangian formalism, energy is the conserved quantity associated to time translation symmetry. It is the Hamiltonian formalism which we quantize, and in the Hamiltonian formalism, the energy operator is called the Hamiltonian and generates time translations in the sense that $\partial_t f = \{H,f\}$ for any function $f$, where $\{-,-\}$ is the Poisson bracket.
In essence, that energy is related to the change of an object in time is tautological because the only way to abstractly define the energy is by declaring it to be the conserved quantity associated to time translation by Noether's theorem
And the $\partial_t\psi = -\mathrm{i}H\psi \iff \psi(t) = \exp(-\mathrm{i}Ht)\psi_0$ thing wonderfully generalizes to all sorts of other transformations/operators.
@BalarkaSen I think the idea (you can check the details in that book) is that you can create a unitary operator for time displacements ($U(t)=\exp(iHt)$) that acts on a state vector: $U(t)|\psi(t_0)\rangle=|\psi(t_0+t\rangle$, so infinitesimally you get Schrödinguer's eq. State vectors "rotate" in various ways in a Hilbert space thanks to unitary transformations
@BalarkaSen I firmly believe that quantum mechanics can only be understood through understanding its technical aspects. All "intuition" sooner or later has to face that our intuition is trained on classical scales where quantum effects are largely absent, hence we don't understand it intuitively.
The best "intuition" for quantum mechanics, to me, is firmly understanding classical Hamiltonian mechanics first.
I have a question about "study" advice. I want to know more about particle physics, but I don't really like all the taxonomy, so I was thinking of skipping the Griffiths+PDG booklet road and going for a QFT approach. More theoretical, yes, but does one really have to memorize quark compositions and esoteric rules before learning the theory behind?
@BalarkaSen I strongly recommend Ballentine. He also wrote a nice review in RMP and he is very "responsible" and a good start for a mathematically trained reader
@Sebgr in fact one can learn QFT and the standard model without knowing anything whatsoever about what the real particles are called or what their quark content is
@BalarkaSen it would seem you are asking about "interpretations" which is nearly a 4 letter word around here and a many-decades long perplexity of QM that has haunted its top minds incl maybe most notably (co)founder einstein, but there are some new povs on QM, pursued by a dogged minority, that seem to be slowly bearing fruit. much more in my blog, but not for the faint of heart :|
@DavidZ @ACuriousMind I have the impression that the typical "Introduction to Particle Physics" course is only useful for a very... dedicated would-be experimentalist. So I was thinking of skipping that class and concentrating in learning more QFT before sinking in a sea of "rules"
@BalarkaSen "physical intution" ~= "interpretations". re feynmans famous quote about QM. "I think its safe to say nobody understands QM..." (other similar famous quotes on my quotes pg)
@BalarkaSen I've been doing quantum mechanics and QFT for quite a while now and I don't think "physical intuition" is all that useful for it. What's necessary is to firmly grasp its mathematical structure - states as rays in Hilbert spaces, observables as Hermitian operators, taking expectation values, and so on - and to be comfortable in manipulating these to get the physical predictions. "Intuition" has rarely helped me in that.
I might be late to the chat session. Someone else should start it if I'm not around at the time. We can have a little update on the replacement for the homework policy but other than that I don't know of anything on the agenda for today.
In fact, I consider the "intuitive" exposition of many introductory QM resources that focus on "waves" and "wavefunctions" instead of the a bit more abstract picture of Hilbert spaces to be detrimental to actually understanding the structure of QM
@BalarkaSen I have a set $K\times[0,\epsilon)\subset \Bbb R^k\times[0,\infty)$ where $K$ is compact. I know that the function $\sigma:\Bbb R^k\times[0,\infty)\to \Bbb R$ is positive on $K\times[0,\epsilon)$.
I need to find an open set $O\subset\Bbb R^k$ with $K\subset O$ such that $\sigma(.,t)$ is positive on $O\times\{t\}$
@ACuriousMind Nod. I am not really into physics - I like doing mathematics, and only recently started to take occasional peeks at this stuff because it intrigues me. So am naturally interested in what the formulas actually mean, because that's how I think in mathematics.
@DavidZ I might be judging from ignorance. I just wanted to see if its viable to tackle the SM once you have a good QFT background. Does the average theorist knows a lot of phenomenology by "exposure" rather than theory?
@vzn To me intuition is an essential part of doing mathematics, and I have met actual mathematicians: I find that most of them think so. So I would not say it's strange.
@ACuriousMind Isn't the part "be comfortable in manipulating these to get the physical predictions" some sort of physical intuition? You could be the expert on Hilbert spaces and self-adjoint operators, but if you lack the physical intuition, it's just abstract mathematics.
@BalarkaSen fully sympathy (it is maybe near my own leanings, and just playing devils advocate right now), but "what the formulas actually mean" is not nec the same as intuition. there can be some conflict on that in math... which reminds me, have you seen the latest ramanujan movie?
@ACuriousMind If classical is emergent from quantum, a sort of breaking of quantum symmetries, wouldn't firmly understanding the very classical Hamiltonian mechanics first actually create a risk of throwing all of your intuitions off? Just a thought.
@BalarkaSen maybe intuition is something very multifaceted like a diamond, and something that never stops, and has many povs. maybe it is like the blind men and the elephant.
@BalarkaSen geometry provides important insights, but formulas derived from such insights provide additional insights not available through geometrical thinking alone.
@TerryBollinger I'm not talking about such "ontological" intuition. My point is that classical Hamiltonian mechanics and quantum mechanics share in their formalism many features that need only little modification to be transferred from one to the other - like generation of symmetries by charges, or the commutator/Poisson bracket of observables.
@0celo7 $\sigma$ is $> 0$ on $K \times [0, \delta]$ for some $\delta < \epsilon$. That's closed. So there is an nbhd $U$ around $K \times [0, \delta]$ on which $\sigma$ is positive. Can't I set $O = U$?
@vzn our minds were designed for surviving in this very physical world. We didn't start rotating equations, we started figuring out where food and safety are, and rotations and such help. An interesting cross-borrowing of organic machinery, that.
@vzn sure! Many of our "simple" mental translations help us imagine what might be on the other side of a tree, a rock, a possible source of food. The ability to make such predictions in our heads, to model the external world, is unbelievably valuable for survival.
@Sebgr agree QM as it has been formulated is apparently quite "airtight" as far as consistency. personally have long thought/ suspected along with many greats it is "incomplete"
So I got an nbhd $U$ of $K \times [0, \delta]$ in $\Bbb R^k \times \Bbb R^+$ on which $\sigma$ is positive. I need to see if there is some open subset of the form $O \times I$ sitting inside $U$.
@ACuriousMind no disagreements! But everything you just said assumes a nicely classical level of information-rich navigation of a very classical mathematical world. Sometimes the maths need to go deeper, to see what you can be created starting from even simpler parts. Information is very, very hard to discard as a "given", even though the quantum world clearly doesn't use it like we do. Information is arguably the main differentiator between quantum physics and classical, I'd say (strongly).
@TerryBollinger Information is indeed crucial: The classical world has hereditarily pure states (every subsystem of a system that is in a pure state is in a pure state) and the quantum world has not.
@ACuriousMind that to me is absolutely fascinating. I often informally describe quantum physics to non-physicists (heh including me!) as the physics in which the history of the history of the system has not yet been set. It's a suprisingly powerful, and more importantly accurate, way of getting at the critical difference.
@ACuriousMind thanks, the question was serious and I'll check it out. I'm having great fun with a particular definition of "observer" that even has some predictive power, and avoids invoking "consciousness" and all of that (to me at least) kind of silliness.
Actually I may not be around for the chat session after all this time. I'll post when I'm able to be here again, but I think I will have to put my update in a meta post later.
@vzn Feynman caught the idea best in the voice version of his tapes when he emphazed the critical thought that there is "no information anywhere in the universe" to describe whether a neutron is reflected or captured. Alas, the real emphasis got edited out of the print version. I think Feynman "got" the idea a bit more profoundly.
So, we took some $\delta < \epsilon$, looked at $K \times [0, \delta]$ in $\Bbb R^k \times \Bbb R^+$, and found an nbhd $U$ around it on which $\sigma$ is positive, right?
The generalized tube lemma says, since $K$ and $[0, \delta]$ are both compact on $\Bbb R^k$ and $\Bbb R^+$ resp, that there are nbhds $O$ and $I$ around it such that $O \times I \subset U$.
@TerryBollinger One introduction is this paper. However, be aware that something like the Born rule is still invoked as an axiom, so this explains how measurement apparati work when they, too, are described quantumly. That may or may nor be what you're looking for.
In general, fermions form a degenerate gas under high density or extremely low temperature. It's clear that white dwarves are supported by electron degeneracy pressure. However, there are still a significant number of protons in a white dwarf. Under those high densities, do the protons form a deg...