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00:00
@0celo7 You should know by now that I don't care about that
@ACuriousMind Yes, what a shame.
@ACuriousMind My brother does that.
@Danu It was not your brother I met :D
But that's nice
I just wrote $\in\mathbb{Z}$ on engineering homework
Wonder if I'll get points deducted
Aren't you supposed to be in Greece right now?
On holiday or something
00:03
I am
I think they have internet in Greece, too.
@Danu what arrows
$f:V\to W$
like that?
$\rho_1:G\to\mathrm{GL}(V)$?
@ACuriousMind Are you too pissed at me to answer rep theory questions
@0celo7 No, but I don't want to think now, either
@Sᴋᴜʟʟᴘᴇᴛʀᴏʟ why did you remove that
00:14
Because this is better:
in Mathematics, 18 mins ago, by Balarka Sen
And, also, draw pictures instead of thinking symbolically.
@Sᴋᴜʟʟᴘᴇᴛʀᴏʟ How do I draw a $G$-submodule
@Sᴋᴜʟʟᴘᴇᴛʀᴏʟ That's a homotopy theorist talking, there are many things you can't draw a proper picture of in other contexts.
@ACuriousMind I would say a geometer
Feynman always tried :P
00:17
(as opposed to algebraist)
@Danu I know BalarkaSen is a fan of homotopy theory/category theory, but you're right, in general, that might be a geometer
Ah! If $f:V\to W$ is the desired isomorphism of irreps and $v\in\operatorname{ker}f$, then $f(\rho_V(g)v)=\rho_W(g)f(v)=0$ for all $g$, so $\operatorname{ker}f$ is a submodule, i.e. $\rho_V$ is not irreducible.
And by rank-nullity $f$ is injective!
And surjective.
@ACuriousMind No, that's wrong, one can have a map without a kernel that is not bijective, right?
@ACuriousMind I'm having a tough time proving subjectivity of $f$. Does this work? If $w\in \operatorname{im}f$, then $f(\rho_V(g)v)=\rho_W(g)w$. So the subspace $\rho_W(G)\operatorname{im}f\subseteq\operatorname{im}f.$ But since $W$ is irreducible, we must have equality, implying $f$ is surjective.
No, that doesn't work.
Ah, I've shown that $\rho_W(G)\operatorname{im}f=\operatorname{im}f$, so $\operatorname{im}f$ is an invariant subspace. But $W$ contains no such subspaces, so $\operatorname{im}f=W$.
@Sᴋᴜʟʟᴘᴇᴛʀᴏʟ No pictures needed :)
Do you want me to try to draw a picture
do what works for you
damn there's a part ii
What the heck is $\lambda$
As @ChrisWhite would say "a Greek letter" :D
@Sᴋᴜʟʟᴘᴇᴛʀᴏʟ Well, it's clearly an eigenvalue of $f$.
So, let $v\in V$ s.t. $f(v)=\lambda v$. Let the space of such $v$s be $U_\lambda$.
Then $f(U_\lambda)=\rho_W(G)f(U_\lambda)$.
Ok, so $f(U_\lambda)$ is an invariant subspace. But such a thing cannot exist, so $f(U_\lambda)=W$.
But $f$ is a bijection, and all of its eigenvalues are the same. Thus $f=\lambda I$.
01:26
@DavidZ You answered a question on the theorem of Stokes in GR here. Would you happen to know how to answer this question?
@DavidZ For some reason the "standard" method of obtaining the measure on a hypersurface in Riemannian geometry picks out the outward normal vector. This is apparently not true in GR. I can't figure out why.
@DavidZ Note that this result is "correct" in the sense that three major (one lesser known) textbooks in GR from different eras claim it.
Sigh...I might have found a book that contains a proof, but the libgen PDF cuts off half of it -.-
01:58
@0celo7 whats your opinion on libgen
@user507974 I'll use to it look up one or two proofs in a book.
I have a university library, so it's no different than getting a scan from them.
@0celo7 your university would do scans?
@user507974 yup
maybe im just not special enough as a lowly undergrad, are you united states?
Yes.
02:05
private/public?
i wont get any more specific than that =3
@user507974 look at my profile for my school
I'll give you my office number too if you want to visit
friendly
if i visit Tennessee i may take you up on that offer
the library will scan entire books
they have a machine for it
@0celo7 that immediatelly makes me think two things
a) what machine is that that will scan a book automatically (unless you mean it prints the book automatically)
and
b) they dont have to put up with any copyright crap
don't know, don't know
but I've seen it done
color and everything
02:15
so when you say scan you mean it prints a pdf
they send you a pdf
thats useful
@user507974 exactly, so I see nothing wrong with me using libgen
and I also see nothing wrong with having PDFs of books I own
02:31
@0celo7 agreed
vzn
vzn
02:50
@FenderLesPaul cool, thx for sharing; are you interested in that synergy? what do you know about it?
03:16
@vzn yes very interested
it's my primary interest in fact
most of what I know about it comes from my research which is much more on the AdS/CFT side
problems such as how to characterize the computational complexity of entangled states in a CFT and whether or not this is actually dual to the geometry inside a black hole long after it thermalizes due to a perturbation
and how to find an appropriate measure of the information overlap between states that appropriately describes the long time chaotic behavior of a perturbation in a CFT
and what the dual bulk picture of this is
so far those are the only things I've worked on that involve said synergy
04:01
@dmckee Are you around?
Sorta.
Why?
I have a simple bra-ket question
|V> - |V> = |0> and not |V> - |V> = 0 right?
::darts glances around for fast escape routes::
I'm trying furiously to recall the deep meaning of addition and subtraction in that context.
04:03
I think I'm right
But that shouldn't mean much
For instance the state $\lvert 0 \rangle$ of the SHO is not a null state.
That is $ \lvert 0 \rangle \ne 0$.
Thus the first one is correct because subtracting two kets will result in a null ket and not just a zero
since a zero wouldn't be representing a vector
Well, what this tells me is that it has been too long since I actually worked quantum mechanics problems.
Well it's the first time in my life tonight
reading Shankar
I'm breaking my quantum cherry
was that overboard?
*popping
04:20
@BernardMeurer what the fuck
vzn
vzn
04:45
@FenderLesPaul that reminds me, there is some new stuff relating computational complexity to black holes, not sure what to make of it yet, seems a bit outlandish at the moment, have you heard it? eg arxiv.org/abs/1402.5674
 
1 hour later…
user54412
06:10
@0celo7 I think I'm getting something here. That second form that @DavidZ seems to refute is completely standard in my field: $\int_\Sigma \partial_\mu(\sqrt{-g} V^\mu) \, \mathrm{d}^x = \int_{\partial\Sigma} n_\mu V^\mu \sqrt{-g} \, \mathrm{d}^{n-1}x$
user54412
It probably comes down to a case of what ordering is hidden in the implicit wedge product or something. The $\partial\Sigma$'s in the two equations (the above and the $\sqrt{\gamma}$ one are different in this way perhaps?
user54412
I think ACM alluded to this possibility.
user54412
Hmm. Consider a constant-$x^0$ (timelike coordinate) surface. The future-directed unit normal has components $n_\mu = (-\alpha, 0, 0, 0)$, $\alpha = (-g^{00})^{-1/2}$ being the lapse. So then we would have $n_\mu V^\mu = -\alpha V^0$ in $\int_{\partial\Sigma} n_\mu V^\mu \sqrt{\gamma} \, \mathrm{d}^{n-1}x$
user54412
Whereas the $\int_{\partial\Sigma} n_\mu V^\mu \sqrt{-g} \, \mathrm{d}^{n-1}x$ form works with $n_\mu V^\mu = V^0$ on this surface. The factor of $\alpha$ is exactly the difference between $\sqrt{-g}$ and $\sqrt{\gamma}$, but there is still a sign difference -- your sign difference.
user54412
(I'm imagining the "top" constant-$x^0$ surface of a box made from all constant-$x^\mu$ surfaces. If $V^\mu = \rho u^\mu$ this is the continuity equation.)
06:46
Hola amigos
@0celo7 thoughts on the Life of Pablo?
07:37
@StanShunpike just that I haven't listened to it
@ChrisWhite Hmm, maybe. I'll be bringing Lee to the library tomorrow and will not leave untill I have figured this out. I'll analyze your comment then.
@ChrisWhite How do I make a color plot in matplotlib that doesn't suck?
@BernardMeurer Good for you. That's a good book.
@BernardMeurer actually, you've got it backwards :)
The notation is tricky.
A vector minus itself is the zero element of the vector space, but that's almost never denoted $|0\rangle$.
Usually $|0\rangle$ denotes the ground state of a system.
user54412
07:56
@DanielSank That very much depends on what's making it suck in the first place ;)
08:18
@ChrisWhite I can't discern features.
Even with a log scale some of the stuff at low amplitudes is invisible.
 
1 hour later…
09:33
@0celo7 no, I wouldn't. Maybe if I had access to my books I could figure it out.
@DanielSank post a picture, maybe we can figure it out
10:02
@DavidZ The problem is just that the default color scheme in matplotlib doesn't spread the dynamic range of the data over an equivalent dynamic range of human perception.
@ChrisWhite knows about this. I was hoping he could recommend color scales that do a better job than the default.
@DanielSank Use seaborn
or there are several other packages that do roughly the same thing, that just happens to be the one I use
I like seaborn.cubehelix_palette(...) but there are a number of options
@danielsank oh i havent worked on the mean steps question since i was busy but i realized two mistakes on the initial answer i gave you, i summed the series rep for all integers instead of just odd numbered and I didn't account for the case of the second to last step starting on the desired opposite vertex and jumping back and forth
just thoughts to oneself while cycling around
10:19
@BernardMeurer No, $\lvert V\rangle - \lvert V \rangle = 0$ is correct. Substracting a vector from itself gives zero. Not some vector that represents zero of some physical quantity (which would be $\lvert 0 \rangle$), but really the zero vector.
Is "numerical" a standard English word for "problem with numbers", or is that another Indian quirk like using "doubt" for "question"?
What's the context?
Without further information, "numerical" only means "having to do with numbers" as far as I know.
@DavidZ Sentences like "Can I use this in numericals?" or "I have this numerical: <problem text> Can you help me?"
Definitely not standard (American) English.
Well, at least to the best of my knowledge. "numerical" is an adjective, not a noun.
Like "doubt" for "question", I keep seeing it from users I think are Indian.
@DavidZ That's what I thought, too
10:30
@ACuriousMind Probably the same sort of thing. Maybe it is standard in Indian English, but I would edit it.
 
3 hours later…
13:04
hey can a question about hybridization be posted on physics SE
0
Q: my question is about hybridization and a bit quantum mechanics?

sharaf zamanI have read in many books that hybridisation is the intermixing of atomic orbitals to form molecular orbital of almost same energy. Hybridisation always takes place when orbitals does not have much energy difference like it can't take place between 2s and 5d Now I know hybridisation can t...

here is the question
I'd say no, but I'm not sure. That being said, definitely don't post it here now that you've already posted it on Chemistry.
but i think physicist are more intelligent than chemist
@DavidZ do you know the answer
Nope
@sharafzaman The only way that statement avoids being an insult is by being too absurd to be taken seriously.
@ACuriousMind sorry ! i didn't get you
13:11
Guys
Does it actually make sense to say "Electrons distribute themselves on energy levels because of the Pauli exclusion principle"
@sharafzaman Saying "I think physicists are more intelligent than chemists" is an insult to chemists.
i mean I can see that is true for some abstract isolated atom in an empty universe
But real atoms are going to be influenced by sources far away from them
Giving rise to very minute splitting of the energy levels
@ACuriousMind but i think it is true!
If we only consider Pauli, they could all inhabit almost the same energy level
But they do not
I assume because of electron-electron interactions
@Slereah to whom you are giving answer
13:14
Myself
I am wondering
@sharafzaman Intelligence may slightly correlate with your profession, but in general, you can find both very intelligent and very stupid people everywhere. "physicists" and "chemists" are not one faceless entity with one single level of intelligence.
@Slereah :O
You're right, I never thought about that.
"Why are not all hyperfine levels filled if I create hyperfine splitting?" is essentially what you're wondering, right?
That might be a good SE question!
@ACuriousMind i think there is no part of chemistry where there is logic to be applied because the inorganic and organic chemistry are full of reactions and no logic the only little of physical chemistry is for intelligents and rest organic and inorganic for those who love to memorize not learn
@ACuriousMind it has been half hour since i asked question no reply so far
@sharafzaman So? Half an hour is nothing.
@ACuriousMind Basically
Although I guess it's because of electron-electron interactions
@sharafzaman Well, you may well think that. Just let me tell you that people do not appreciate being told their field of study doesn't require intelligence, and that you sound incredibly arrogant with what you're saying.
13:20
@ACuriousMind thats true ;)
so why say it?
@skillpatrol because of my high school where i have to read chemistry tough i like physics, maths and programming]
No answer so far!
it usually takes at least 24 hours to start
nah! my experience on physics and maths SE says it take 10-15 minutes
btw do you use "numerical" as a noun?
13:34
@skillpatrol No! i don't, but why?
just wondering :)
do you use it?
0
Q: How important is the Pauli exclusion principle in the distribution of particles on energy levels

SlereahIt is usually said that the Pauli exclusion principle is the big arbiter of how particles will distribute themselves along energy levels (especially electrons on atomic orbitals), but how accurate is this statement? It's rather easy to see for an abstract atom, floating in the void in an empty u...

there you go
@Slereah let me see your research ?
13:38
i mean let me see what answer you get
Well it's on Stack Exchange
You can see it yourself!
ya! i know
who is this Ron Maimon, he has given many cool answer but reputation is still 1
1 hour, NO answer
14:14
Tomorrow (Monday) is a leap day, next leap day will be on ...... ? "using calculation only".
yess!!
what is difference between meta sites and normal ones
meta is for discussions about "policies"
meta means at a higher level :P
14:44
Well, meta is for questions about the site. They don't necessarily have to be policy questions.
@DavidZ What do you mean by "if you had your books"
Unless you have a magic GR book, the answer is not in any of them :/
let's make a petition to switch phi and varphi in latex
I think this is one of those things that's in Hawking-Ellis and everyone repeats over the years, but doesn't prove.
what thing
The thing I've been trying to prove for a week
Where have you been
14:52
Working
Well
@ACuriousMind What's the canonical reason for why Tarkin can command Vader around in Ep. IV?
Pretending to be working
The reason is because Vader wasn't the king of space in episode 4
He was just a random bad guy
@Slereah that's a crappy reason
did they retcon his importance in V-VI?
I'm not quite sure how important Vader was in episode 4
Do they ever state his rank or whatever
i only remember him being one of the bad guys
Not sure he was the protégé of the Emperor yet
Do they even mention the Emperor in ep IV
@Slereah I...don't think so. Been a while since I watched the original trilogy.
14:59
I mean IIRC Grand Moff Tarkin was the guy ordering Vader around
Holding Vader's leash
But nobody remembers Tarkin because he doesn't have a bucket on his head
I feel like Leah was not distraught enough for the destruction of her home.
I am kind of sad that the prequels never included Tarkin
Tarkin seems like an interesting guy
The prequels needed to explain midichlorians.
They just replace one mystery with another.
Not a very good explanation if you ask me.
Eh
Midichlorians didn't fit the tone of Star Wars much
@Slereah Know any good references on complex GR?
15:04
the force is just Magic
Penrose, I guess?
I don't know if he's good but he was the big guy on it
@Slereah I'm saying if they want to explain it, the midichlorians were a shite way to do it.
Maybe they planned to
@Slereah His two volumes?
But then noticed that it did not play out well in SW1
How good is Penrose and Rindler anyway?
15:05
Dunno
They don't even mention midichlorians outside of SW1, I think
I think in Ep. 3.
Oh yeah, maybe in the Palpy speech
When Palpatine is talking to Anakin about Palagius.
^can't spell that shit
Good old Palpy
@Slereah When you use the divergence theorem on a timelike hypersurface, why must you take the inward pointing normal?
15:08
iunno
I guarantee it's because the induced metric $\iota^*g$ is Lorentzian. But I have no clue why.
Wow that might be the nicest picture explaining charts.
this from a guy who hates diagrams :P
@Sᴋᴜʟʟᴘᴇᴛʀᴏʟ I always draw a picture when proving geometry things.
@0celo7 have you seen this one?
@vzn that paper is what motivated my project
on using computational complexity to describe interior black hole geometry long after the thermalization time of the black hole
15:23
@ACuriousMind But doesn't any operation in a vector space yield another element of that same space? And $0$ wouldn't be in a vector space, but the null vector $|0>$ obeying $|V> + |0> = |V> would$
@vzn also if you're interested look up the arxiv papers of Patrick Hayden and Daniel Harlow
particularly Daniel Harlow
he mainly works on fundamental relationships between quantum info and black hole geometry
he has some papers on black holes as quantum error correcting codes
He was a student of Susskind's in fact, but he's a post-doc at Harvard now
@BernardMeurer : use \vert and \rangle
@Slereah Yeah I just went back to check on how ACM was doing it
@vzn there are also some papers on using tensor networks to construct emergent space-time geometry
there should be just a \ket
15:28
$\ket{butt}$
nope
@BernardMeurer You usually don't write the null vector as $\lvert 0 \rangle$.
@ACuriousMind Shankar does :(
$\lvert 0 \rangle$ should be a non-zero vector labeled by $0$ (e.g. because it is the eigenvector of an operator with eigenvalue $0$)
Yeah now you lost me on the eigen stuff
It's pretty common to write the vacuum or ground state $\lvert 0 \rangle$ (e.g. of the harmonic oscillator).
The null or zero vector should really be just $0$. It isn't a state, and kets are supposed to correspond to states.
15:35
That's why I got confused
That's terrible notation
What book is that?
Principles of Quantum Mechanics 2nd Edition
But yeah that's just really bad notation dude
15:39
You people should create the notation to rule them all and make my life easier
It is not a state because it cannot be normalized
Not only is it terrible notation, it's also terrible grammar :P (should be "exists", not "exist")
@BernardMeurer is this your first time learning QM?
@FenderLesPaul Uhum
Have you thought about using a different book?
One with a lot more problems in it that you can work through
and that isn't as confusing
15:45
@FenderLesPaul I just picked this one up, I'd be totally fine with using a different one
Like Griffiths
Getting it's pdf now
Also any news from schools?
Interview with UPenn was stellar, same for Minnesota
The answer for the latter should come around this week
1 rejection 9 TBD
dope, best of luck :)
15:51
@FenderLesPaul Where's the solutions?
@FenderLesPaul Thanks man :)
@0celo7 working on it I still have to make sure I'm not missing subtelties
@ACuriousMind why is it terrible notation
@FenderLesPaul ok
@0celo7 I already wrote why.
@ACuriousMind he has not gotten to the section on eigenvalues yet
@ACuriousMind and I'm telling you it makes sense if you read the book
15:53
18 mins ago, by ACuriousMind
It's pretty common to write the vacuum or ground state $\lvert 0 \rangle$ (e.g. of the harmonic oscillator).
$|V\rangle=\vec V$ at this point
17 mins ago, by ACuriousMind
The null or zero vector should really be just $0$. It isn't a state, and kets are supposed to correspond to states.
no eigenvalues
@ACuriousMind I can repeat myself too
Aren't kets vectors?
48 secs ago, by 0celo7
@ACuriousMind he has not gotten to the section on eigenvalues yet
43 secs ago, by 0celo7
@ACuriousMind and I'm telling you it makes sense if you read the book
15:53
@0celo7 None of my two statement there refers to eigenvalues
He has not gotten to states
ok then he has not gotten to the section on states yet
the notation makes perfect sense if you read the book
later on he uses $0$ for the $0$ ket
so calm your tits
2
kets are vectors yes
@0celo7 that's not what I call "perfect sense".
In a Hilbert space
@ACuriousMind orly
15:55
Introducing the notation $\lvert 0 \rangle$ for the zero vector and then switching to $0$ is silly; why not write $0$ from the beginning.
@skillpatrol yes
@ACuriousMind don't know
@BernardMeurer is the first one to be confused
$\vert 0 \rangle$ is kind of a bit overloaded with symbolisms
that's not a good thing
I'm confused because the axioms are now infused in my bloodstream
To be fair though
You basically never use the zero vectors in QM
15:56
@Slereah coughcontinuouseigenketsdontlieinahilbertspacecough
@ACuriousMind You're going to make me cry
@ACuriousMind really?
BUT THEY LIE ON THE EXTENSION TO DISTRIBUTIONS
so there :p
@BernardMeurer Ignore that last message
make it rigged
15:57
@Slereah Which isn't a Hilbert space
What is even a Hilbert space
Am I on a Hilbert space?
Nothing but a miserable pile of vectors
@Slereah Complete innner product space.
@BernardMeurer I have no idea what you're on ;)
I know :p
15:59
@ACuriousMind I'm smoking manifolds & hamiltonians
@Slereah is "ge tit" something in French

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