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13:00
@skull patrol : I've read a lot of Einstein material, I know the answers. If you plot light-clock rates at different elevations your plot is curved. Hence you could say time is curved. But there isn't any actual thing called time that exists. Space exists, and motion, but time is a derived dimension. You can't move through like you can move through the space dimensions.
The only Lie-type bracket you might encounter in physics that is not a commutator is probably the Poisson bracket
@Slereah No, Lorentzian geometry is in signature (1,n-1). General (p,q) is pseudo-Riemannian.
@skull patrol : Hence time is emergent, so space can exist without time. See A World without Time for what Einstein says, and see what a clock does for the evidence. When you open up a clock you don't see time flowing through it. A clock doesn't literally measure the flow of time like it's some cosmic gas meter. It "clocks up" some kind of regular cyclical motion, such as a that of a vibrating crystal.
Ok, so time is what elapses between events, correct? @JohnDuffield
@skull patrol : not really. That's what we call it, but when you look closely, you find that there is no actual thing you can see or touch etc called time. What's actually happening is that light and electrochemical signals and things are all moving. A clock clocks up motion.
Work calls I'm afraid. Busy busy busy. Bye for now.
Bye Sir.
13:14
@Slereah
http://philsci-archive.pitt.edu/10945/1/NSP_SHPMP_Final_Version.pdf

I have finished reading the paper you referred me

It seems in the paper, the author went through 3 different criteria for non superluminal propagation:

Given a manifold $M$ with some prescribed data $\Phi$ at some point $A$

1. NSP1: Change in field values at A should only change the field values within the casual cone of A. This ensures the uniqueness of some solution at some later time given some initial data at A
:O
You just set the record for the longest post I've ever seen
Seriously, is this chat bug known on Meta?
That's not a bug, it's a monster :P
Okay, it's, as usual, the multiline that's responsible.
Houston we have a problem.
13:21
Hm, it's not a bug
without all those spacing, my stuff is not readable, just like those wordy journal articles in phys chem
Digging on meta says that the multiline environment disables all markdown and restrictions because it is for pasting stuff.
...except I actually type this from scratch
there's just so much I want to go through and I don't knwo how to make it even simpler and concise
Yes, you put a lot of effort into it.
@Secret Keeping to the message length restriction and not posting more than two or three in a row might be a useful exercise in being concise. For instance, more than half of that monster post is a summary of the paper. If Slereah referred you to it, why are you repeating back the content he presumably knows to him?
Hmm...I wonder if a mod could use the multiline environment to superping every user of SE at once... :D
13:26
Hi, can someone tell me where I could find more information on arithmetic vs. algebraic sum?
My physics book mentions it and so does one yahoo answer, but I can't find any "formal" information on it.
I know the difference, but maybe it has a different "formal name"?
@ACuriousMind I am trying to check my understanding on the paper with Slereah on whether it is correct, given my physics intuition is just not good enough to not bump into wrong or misleading interpretations, especially for GR and quantum mech

Checking that I am on the right track is important to ensure the points I want to discussed about does not sound nonsense because of a misconception in my part (which I often ran into because of the tendency to overintepret what the maths told me)
@Tuntuni I had to look up "arithmetic sum". They're just sums where a constant is added every time. What is an "algebraic sum"?
Hm, I can find a definition for "algebraic sum" on Wikipedia's suggestion page (although no articles), but nothing for arithmetic sum?
@ACuriousMind That's an arithmetic progression, not an arithmetic sum.
Then I know neither of those two types of sums.
An algebraic sum uses variables while an arithmetic sum uses numbers.
13:29
@skullpetrol Seriously?
That's a stupid distinction if I ever heard one
Why not?
Arithmetic sum is supposed to be a summation without taking the signs of the numbers in account.
So basically just their absolute values.
While an algebraic sum does.
That makes even less sense to me, why would anyone invent those names for that?
No idea, that's why I want some more information ofnit.
I thought it was a common thing, lol.
"Because of the different directions of action of the two voltages, instead of taking their arithmetic sum, we need to take their algebraic sum." (a not-so-good translation from my book)
The section talks about connecting multiple batteries but with their poles reversed.
@Tuntuni I don't think "arithmetic sum" and "algebraic sum" are all that common, and I'm not sure what more you hope to find on that.
13:33
@ACuriousMind D:
I hoped to find a serious definition in some math theory text or something.
@skullpetrol really?
I think when he posted his whole CV he set the record
@ACuriousMind Why a mod?
@0celo7 Because non-mods can't superping
What is superping
@0celo7 Ping users who have not been in chat in the last 2 days
13:36
@ACuriousMind I knew that
@ACuriousMind ah
why doesn't KK come here at all anymore
certainly he's not busy 24/7, and he goes on the main site all the time
anything special?
that's the measure theory free course
and back home
@Slereah huh?
@ACuriousMind You're pseudo lorentzian :V
@0celo7 Not sure what kind of question that is
Also then what is a (p,q,r) metric signature called
13:44
@ACuriousMind is it what you'd expect from a first real analysis course
@0celo7 Pretty much
@ACuriousMind second semester exam here
Yeah, Lebesgue integrals. We were tardy and had to finish that in the third semester
the measure theory real analysis course does not have any final exams online, sadly
Real physicists don't use no Lebesgue integral
13:49
@ACuriousMind did go right into sigma algebras and borel sets?
it looks like we do that in the third semester
An integral is just $\lim_{\Delta x \rightarrow 0} \sum_{x = a}^{b} f(x + \Delta x) \Delta x$!
@0celo7 No, we didn't take the measure theoretic route in my analysis class
oh that's right, your lecturer was some old number theorist :D
@Slereah agreed
but the PDE classes have Lebesge integrals as recommended background
so...
...believes in the caloric fluid :'D
@Slereah hehe
still laughing at that
You laugh but just wait to see how path integrals are defined with physicist
I do know some QFT you know
13:56
Oh yes but I've done like 6 months of working on path integrals
Like non-relativistic
Down to the nitty gritties
just integrate over all paths
I don't see the issue
It is pretty not rigorous :p
manifolds are vector spaces, I don't see the issue
I told you about the $dx^2 = dt$ thing
all manifolds are isomorphic to R^n
I don't see the issue!
13:57
Then you truly are a physicist!
I bet you ppl can't provide one counterexample
@Slereah well, that's neither of my majors
The sphere isn't isomorphic to $R^n$
of course it is
Hey you know what else isn't isomorphic to $R^n$?
just map every point to R^n, done
13:58
Two copies of $R^n$
Oh wait
Does isomorphic imply continuous maps
what like R^2n?
Or not
@Slereah that's homeo
in any case
Well I suppose every manifold has the same cardinality, yes :p
all manifolds are vector spaces because all manifolds are homeomorphic to $\mathbb{R}^n$
13:59
Well maybe not the empty set
@0celo7 Not true. An "isomorphism of manifolds" is always continuous.
and discrete sets of points
@ACuriousMind then what is a homeo
ffs these definitions
you're a homeo
2
that's up there with son of a bricklayer
that has to be the most creative insult ever :D
14:00
It is so very quaint
It's right up there with "Son of a motherless goat"
in a string theory vs. LQG debate:
You son of an engineer!
@0celo7 It's admittedly silly, but one calls an isomorphism between topological spaces a homeomorphism for some reason. So an isomorphism of manifolds is also a homeomorphism, but when they come e.g. with differentiable structures, it is more.
@ACuriousMind in any case
all manifolds are vector spcaes
just because you can't define the vector space doesn't mean it exists
You drunk?
no, I'm taking a stand against popmath
14:02
Ah, trolling then.
procrastinating is more like it
and I do not troll
I challenge the accepted truths as a part of my crusade to rid mathematics of cargo cult proofs
He's all about Gauss and the Theorems
Gauss Bonnet is incorrect
since every manifold is homeomorphic to R^n
all manifolds are flat
bet you won't see that in a "mainstream" book
So
The earth is flat
yes, google on "flat earth theory"
14:05
I've been to the forums :p
It is quite entertaining
3
Q: Is every "nice" topological vector space a manifold?

AmudhanSay $V$ is a topological vector space. What conditions do you need to add on $V$ to make it a (topological, maybe infinite-dimensional) manifold? For instance, can we view the Schwartz class functions, test function spaces, or distributions as being locally homeomorphic to a Banach space?

They work very hard to not do the simplest experiments to show that the earh is round
Pope Pius 2 and the evidence demand it
so, time for tea
work calls!
bye
$PP^2\wedge\mathcal{E}$ is the name of the game
@Secret : Sounds about right?
Didn't read the part about the extended cone yet tho
Been busy
you know what else
$\lim_{n\to\infty}\int f_n=\int \lim_{n\to\infty}f_n$
this is obviously true
14:15
Everything commutes
dunno why cargo cult math forbids it
@Slereah exactly
$R(X,Y)Z=[\nabla_X,\nabla_Y]Z+\nabla_{[X,Y]}Z\equiv0$
the Riemann tensor is zero
That is why the earth is flat
you know what else
$\lim_{k\to\infty}\int\mathrm{e}^{\mathrm{i}kx}f(x)\mathrm{d}x=0$
easy
math types refuse to believe it
you know what else
$G_{\mu\nu}=T_{\mu\nu}$
but above we showed Riem=0
so $T_{\mu\nu}=0$
simple
quantum mechanics is wrong too
Well
Everything commutes
$[q,p]=0\ne\mathrm{i}$
14:19
Also
$a - b = b - a$
hamiltonian mechanics is wrong too
All numbers are 0
wait how can $G_{\mu\nu}=T_{\mu\nu}$
Isn't $G_{\mu\nu}=T_{\mu\nu}-\frac{1}{2}g_{\mu\nu}R$ from EFE?
$\{q,p\}=0\ne1$
@Secret no?
go take a GR course, buddy
but remember it's all lies
also
Newtonian mechanics is wrong
$F=mv$
for crying out loud Archimedes was correct. Duh!
14:22
Sorry should be $G_{\mu\nu}=R_{\mu\nu}-\frac{1}{2}Rg_{\mu\nu}$
@0celo7 Wat
Do you mean Aristoteles?
no
you know what else
axiom of choice is only conditionally correct
how's so?
look at Banach Tarski
absolutely silly
so in that case it's wrong
but all vector spaces have a basis
this is obviously true
so in that case it's right
and if AoC ever increases GPD, it's right in that instance
this is simple logic, people
obe
obe
Logic or intuition?
14:30
Not sure if you think you're funny :P
another problem: there's no difference
@ACuriousMind this is serious
you know what else
I'm not convinced the angles in a triangle add up to 180
@0celo7 No, it isn't. You're just spamming the room with blatantly false stuff you don't even believe yourself.
@ACuriousMind indeed. brainstorming for a paper
I should write it on "violence in mathematics: how a small child was shunned in an internet chatroom"
that would be easier to write than the moral implications of sanctions
What is the correct way of writing the Euler Lagrange equation
can't write an incorrect equation the "right way" :)
14:42
@Slereah What do you mean?
Is it $\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \phi} - \frac{d}{dt}\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial \partial_t \phi} = 0$ or $\frac{\delta \mathcal{L}}{\delta \phi} - \frac{d}{dt}\frac{\delta \mathcal{L}}{\delta \partial_t \phi} = 0$
first
second is used by some people for no good reason
@Slereah $\partial$. $\delta$ is used by people who think that's a functional derivative.
Is it not though
@Slereah No, the Lagrangian is a function that happens to get fields plugged into it, but $\phi$ and $\partial_\mu\phi$ are just variables to it.
14:47
Alright
What is true is that the whole Euler-Lagrange equation is the expression for the functional derivative $\frac{\delta S}{\delta \phi}$ being zero.
indeed
and then there's the Maupertuis thingie
which I don't really understand
@0celo7 What do you mean?
@ACuriousMind I don't know how to derive it or how it's different or special
@ACuriousMind : Wald also defines the momentum as $\pi = \frac{\delta}{\delta \dot\phi} \mathcal L$
Is it also incorrect?
14:56
@Slereah If he claims that is a functional derivative, yes. The Lagrangian is really just a function, and we do not care that $\phi$ is a field when we write down $\partial \mathcal{L}/\partial \mathcal{\phi}$.
The true functional derivative would not treat $\phi$ and $\dot{\phi}$ as independent, for one.
@0celo7 It's different because it gives trajectories for constant energy and known start- and end-points, in contrast to the usual action principles which give trajectories given known start- and end-points as well as times. Also, Maupertuis gives the trajectory as p(q) in phase space, while the usual principles give q(t) or (q(t),p(t)).
So we take the integral $\int p\mathrm{d}q-H\mathrm{d}t$
then assume $H$ is constant
and vary the integral?
What am I supposed to do if even Wald lies to me!
WHAT
WHERE
cf above
15:04
which book
which page
which year
Quantum field theory in curved spacetime and black hole thermodynamics
Or whatever it is called
yeah
that's at home
It's the chapter on quantum field theory in flat space
page? I have a "legal" copy with me
you can use your eyes
to see it
using vision
15:05
page?
And light
page, seriously
I need to see the heresy for myself
The book is in the toilets
and I am too lazy to go get it
@ACuriousMind I'm planning to stop by Freire's office to talk about stuff
I'll throw the Maupertuis principle in
@0celo7 I find it better this way: Usually, we vary $\int L \mathrm{d}t$. If $H$ is constant, then adding it does not change the stationary points: $\int(L+H)\mathrm{d}t$. But $L$ and $H$ are Legendre transforms of each other, so $\int p\dot{q}\mathrm{d}t$ and $\dot{q}\mathrm{d}t=\mathrm{d}q$ gives the abbreviated action for Maupertuis
15:07
So, for constant $H$, you might as well just vary $\int p\mathrm{d}q$.
@ACuriousMind makes sense
you make sense
Arnold does not D:
but I will think on it some more myself
or talk to Freire
@0celo7 : p. 36
eq. 3.2.1
see the image above...
Well I didn't see it
15:09
I don't see the issue
Because I was busy GOING DOWN TO THE BATHROOM FOR YOU
Ask @ACuriousMind about it
@ACuriousMind what is @Slereah's problem?
Slereah (discussion to be enriched later...)
@Slereah but he doesn't
you're a liar
stop slandering Bob's name
@0celo7 Just read what we wrote - if the $\delta$ is supposed to be a functional derivative, it's wrong.
15:12
Why?
You can't take the functional derivative wrt. $\dot\phi$?
@0celo7 Because of how a functional derivative is defined: If you have a functional $F[\phi]$, then the functional derivative is a function $\frac{\delta F}{\delta\phi}(x)$. But $\mathcal{L}(\phi,\dot{\phi},t)$ is not a functional, it is just a function in three variables.
wtf
the action is not a functional??
You can't take the functional derivative of something that is not a functional.
WTF IS S
@0celo7 $\mathcal{L}$ is not the action
15:16
where is $\mathcal{L}$!?
In what @Slereah claimed Wald wrote :P
see the image for what the book actually says
About the functional derivative w.r.t. $\dot{\phi}$ I'll have to think a bit.
as I said, @Slereah needs to stop slandering Bob's name
@Slereah where is $\pi=\delta\mathcal{L}/\delta\dot\phi$
I need picture evidence
otoh, Zee has
@0celo7 I don't think you can take the functional derivative w.r.t. $\dot{\phi}$.
15:23
wai
For that, you'd have to consider the action as a functional $S[\phi,\dot{\phi}]$ where $\phi$ and $\dot{\phi}$ are independent functions. But that's not what $S$ is. The action always considers $\dot{\phi}$ to be the time derivative of $\phi$.
Stop saying things I know
The things I know don't convince me, obviously
Wait
is the momentum as the variation of S correct
Or is it still incorrect
@0celo7 Not this again. Unless you can't define the functional derivative w.r.t. $\dot{\phi}$, it doesn't exist. The burden of proof is not on the person claiming it doesn't exist.,
@Slereah Huh? $\delta S/\delta\phi$ is just the Euler-Lagrange expression, if you mean that.
@0celo7 @ACuriousMind This one
15:28
What if I define it s.t. $\phi$ and $\dot\phi$ are independent
Although wait that equation doesn't make sense either, does it?
and then make them dependent after the variation
Wouldn't there be an integral if that was the variation of S?
@Slereah no
Oh wait, is it because $\delta f(x) / \delta f(y) = \delta(x-y)$
15:29
@0celo7 Possible, but non-standard.
or something
@ACuriousMind good enough for me
Could be what Wald had in mind, though.
I DON'T KNOW ANYTHING ANYMORE
@ACuriousMind :(
I don't want burden
pretty sure $\delta S$ is an integral
but $\delta S/\delta\phi$ is a function
15:32
The variation $\delta S$ between two functions $\phi,\psi$ is given by $\delta S[\phi,\psi] = \int \frac{\delta S}{\delta \phi}(x)\psi(x)\mathrm{d}x$
I knew that!
but what is the variation
of love
obe
obe
Is SR the same to GR as QM is to QFT?
15:42
Aha! Freire worked at Max Plank doing GR!
obe
obe
@ACuriousMind How?
No wonder he teaches a pseudo-Riemannian class
@obe Why do you think it would be?
obe
obe
Idk I guessed.
obe
obe
15:44
Were you the one interested student?
2009
obe
obe
Time machine.
his policy is 5 people need to sign up
none of the math people give a rats ass about GR
and the physics department is 90% particle and condensed matter physics
:(
why did he post a TeX code for a lecture proposal
@obe wot
Can anyone talk to me about Fock spaces here?
15:48
They are focking awesome
::hides::
Is that also a yes? :P
It's a bunch of Hilbert spaces glued together
Language!
@GaloisintheField Yes, what do you want to know?
obe
obe
@Slereah An idea...
15:50
So $\mathcal{F}_2$ is a 6-dimensional $gl(3)$-module
$\oplus_{i = 1}^n \text{Sym}{\otimes_{k = 1}^i \mathcal{H}}$
https://i.sstatic.net/TBmH1.png
(2)
Or something
@GaloisintheField Uh...what is $\mathcal{F}_2$?
@Slereah its in the back of toilet book
15:51
Probably
@ACuriousMind The fock subspace of all 2-boson states spanned by homogeneous polynomials of degree 2 in the boson creation operators acting on the physical vacuum state
Is the Fock space itself a Hilbert space btw
I suspect it is
@Slereah Yes, silly, the tensor product and direct sums of hilbert spaces are Hilbert spaces
@ACuriousMind : I suspected as much since particles are a lie :p
Hence only the total space of all things is the Real Hilbert Space
15:53
@Slereah but it is complex...
@GaloisintheField Not sure why you say it is six-dimensional or a $\mathfrak{gl}(3)$-module. What physical system are you considering and how many creator/annihilator pairs do you have?
Well yes, but I mean real in the metaphysical sense!
@Slereah define $\text{Real}\bigr\rvert_{\text{Metaphysics}}$
@GaloisintheField Additionally, no physicist will understand you when you talk about $\mathfrak{gl}(3)$-modules. ;) Say it carries a representation of $\mathfrak{gl}(3)$
Boson creators $b_i^\dagger$ $i=1,2,3$
Oh okay haha
15:57
@GaloisintheField Ah, yes, I now agree with you it is six-dimensional and a $\mathfrak{gl}(3)$-module
@GaloisintheField And anyways, why would it be six dimensional? It depends on what one-particle space you choose as a starting point
Anyway my question is, we have $\cal F_2$ as the direct sum of two irreducible $o(3)$-modules (carries a $o(3)$ representation?)
@yuggib There are only three creation operators, so the one-particle space is three-dimensional.
How do I find the highest weights of my $o(3)$-modules?
@GaloisintheField Do you know...Clebsch-Gordan coefficients? :D
15:59
Twp
Yep
@ACuriousMind then it is not worth to call it a Fock space...
you may as well call it $L^2$
I don't like Clebsch-Gordan because it sounds like someone misspelt Klein Gordon

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