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user54412
00:16
@nerdy when you suddenly change the left boundary condition, the adjacent bead tries to adjust, which causes the next bead to adjust, and so on. This is a classic example of a shock. It is propagating at the sound speed of the string.
user54412
Now when you slowly change the boundary condition, information about the first little change you do starts propagating at the sound speed right away -- the string doesn't wait for you to finish adjusting the left end before responding.
Im still really in doubt about that parameter of the wave .. i cant find a formal name for it or precise definitions . Here is that parameter whenever i do a fast lifting i.sstatic.net/qmjSU.jpg and here its when i do a slow lifting i.sstatic.net/ELi16.jpg
user54412
Well, you could call the shape a wavepacket and talk about its width, though some people like to define wavepackets as returning to the baseline. Perhaps a better term would be pulse and the width you indicate is the pulse width.
user54412
In any event it is given by (sound speed)/(time over which slider is adjusted)
user54412
Though now I think about it some people would say a pulse also should return to baseline, and they would think a pulse width is the width of the top of it:
user54412
00:21
___/---\___
user54412
i guess "leading edge width" is the least ambiguous term -- the pulse consists of a leading edge, the pulse proper, and (if you brought the slider down eventually) a falling edge
@nerdy The usual sinusoidal waves get the adjective "harmonic". Non-sinusoidal wave that repeat are "periodic".
user54412
@ChrisWhite correction: (sound speed) * (time over which slider is adjusted)
04:48
Sorry being so newbie, but what does sound have to do with my wave propagating through the string ?
I was thinking that the wave-length would be the velocty of the wave times multiplied by the time over the lifting
05:31
@nerdy sound is a wave too. A longitudinal wave (where the air particles move backward and forward) instead of a transverse wave (where the string particles move sideways), but it generally works the same way.
Yeah, but in my example i guess we were considering the variation of heigth of the string propagating as the wave whereas in sound we consider the variation in pressure propagated as the wave
Yeah, exactly
Still they both work as waves. Both have the same mathematical description.
 
1 hour later…
06:58
oy... 31 comment flags popped up in the last hour or so
07:23
Anyone here? I have a question that I've been trying to figure out for like two hours
and can't get anywhere—I think I'm just misunderstanding the definition of something
@AmagicalFishy what is it?
I'm working on some GR homework, am told that $\kappa ^2 = \frac{1}{2}(\nabla^a K_b)(\nabla^b K_a) |_{rH}$
and am asked to show, for some given metric (spherically symmetric static black hole), that $\kappa = \frac{1}{2} \partial_r f(r) |_{rH}$
The thing that is confusing me (and honestly has been for the whole semester) is the statement: Where $K$ is the time-translation killing vector, $K = \frac{\partial}{\partial t}$
This means that $K = (\frac{\partial}{\partial t}, 0, 0, 0)$, right?
Which would mean that $K_x = K_y = K_z = 0$?
(I messed up some of the indexing above, but that doesn't really matter. :D)
hmm... well, yes, $K_x = K_y = K_z = 0$ is accurate
But I wouldn't write $K = (\partial_t, 0, 0, 0)$
(this is if I remember correctly, which I might not)
Ah. So, how would I interpret something like $\nabla_t K_t$? I end up with a 2nd derivative there acting on... nothing
I think the partials are meant to be basis vectors of the tangent space. So the notation would be $K = (1,0,0,0)$
which is equivalently $K = 1\partial_t + 0\partial_x + 0\partial_y + 0\partial_z$
07:30
Ah. So $\frac{\partial}{\partial t} K_t = 0$?
(That is the term in the covariant derivative before Christoffel thing)
That's where my memory kind of fails me
No worries, you've actually helped a lot already. :D
In flat spacetime, yes, but when you bring in curvature I forget if that changes
@AmagicalFishy ah, well good :-)
I have to remember that $\frac{\partial}{\partial t}$ is a basis vector
and not treated like a derivative
(sometimes)
Well, it is a derivative, but it's also a basis vector. It's part of the basis of the space of all possible directional derivatives.
i.e. directional derivatives themselves form a vector space.
07:34
Yeah. I guess I meant moreso like, "$K$ is the killing vector $\partial_t$" doesn't mean "Compute the derivative with respect to $t$ of something." It means $K$ should be represented as $(1,0,0,0)$
@AmagicalFishy BTW that would be a really good question to ask on the main site.
It's been a whole semester and I'm still confused by this stuff sometimes, haha.
Good idea. :v
@AmagicalFishy yeah, that sounds accurate. I mean, you do eventually wind up calculating the derivative of something, but the point of treating the derivatives themselves as tangent vectors is that it doesn't matter what the derivative acts on in the end
Huh. The Physics SE is pretty harsh when it comes to questions
Harsh on low-effort questions, yes. We expect a lot of our askers, and it shows because so many people come here asking for homework help, not knowing that we're really not a homework help site.
3
But in your chat messages here, you've done everything we expect from a good homework question: you gave the original problem you were working on, you reduced it to the underlying physical concept that you were confused about and asked about that specifically (as opposed to "how do I solve this")
and you showed that you'd made an effort to work through it yourself
07:53
Ah, excellent.
Thanks for your help. :D :D I posted the question here:physics.stackexchange.com/questions/150579/…
Excellent :-) I would suggest putting $\kappa ^2 = \frac{1}{2}(\nabla^a K_b)(\nabla^b K_a) |_{rH}$ in display style (use $$ before and after) and the $\displaystyle\frac{\partial}{\partial t}$ in text style, just for readability.
Oh, and same goes for the $\displaystyle\frac{\partial^2}{\partial t^2}$ in the last line (i.e. put it in text mode). Not a big thing, but I think it helps maintain the flow of reading.
(I mean, it's up to you of course)
At least in my opinion, there's rarely if ever any good reason to use \displaystyle in MathJax
I think I just have a habit of formatting like I write
... which is unecessarily large
08:09
Yeah, that works well when writing, not so much when typing. LaTeX and MathJax are already designed to produce pretty good typesetting results when you use their default settings.
Of course it's not like we have a rule against it, so you can format the way you write if you want.
Yeah. I'm too pragmatic to know there's what people consider a more readable format and not follow it. :P
not a bad thing, as far as I'm concerned
user54412
08:57
Ok -- philosophy time.
user54412
I've seen it said over and over again that the singularities predicted by GR are a sign the theory is breaking down. Fine.
user54412
But in the same breath everyone who mentions this will go on to say "and one day we'll have a quantum theory of gravity that will make the singularity go away" or some such thing.
user54412
Does everyone really believe there is no self-consistent theory of general relativity in a universe without quantum mechanics?
user54412
That's a pretty harsh indictment of a theory, after all.
user54412
To be clear, I'm not talking about how much of real-world physics can be done with or without various theories. I'm just asking how internally self-consistent we believe various proper subsets of physics to be, as mathematical models that may or may not correspond well to reality.
user54412
09:05
Everyone is so certain that quantum shenanigans can solve "problems" in GR, and to me it seems this certainty implies they must believe there is some deep feature of GR that demands it incorporate quantum effects for self-consistency. That claim seems remarkable to say the least.
12:23
@ChrisWhite: What does self-consistent mean here, or rather what does the opposite mean?
The mathematical definition would be that there is a statement P for which you can derive 'P and not P'. I don't quite understand the "the theory breaks down" thing in GR, I've never seen that.
13:04
@ChrisWhite I think singularities are really not that "problematic". Singularities are like the tip of a cone - the cone is only a manifold if you exclude the tip, which is a "singularity".
The search for a "quantum theory of gravity" is, in my view, simply necessary because we want to have a theory that includes all known interactions between matter
Yet, it is known that simply turning GR into a QFT by the usual quantization process can only be an effective theory, since it is non-renormalizable, but we want a theory that does not break down at high energy scales, i.e. that has no degress of freedom integrated out and thus hidden from our view
 
6 hours later…
19:35
This is interesting... Apparently IncnisMrsi thinks I'm 'power-hungry'... lol. I've suddently got a much better idea who is the anonymous downvoter on some of my recent answers... ;)
19:49
@Danu Though they seem to hold some grudge, the rant on their profile page seems to indicate that the downvotes are not theirs. At least, if they were, that would be a textbook example of hypocrisy.
@ACuriousMind What a rant.
Vengeful enthusiast has a nice ring to it, though :D
20:10
the ignorant outnumber the knowledgeable and enjoy the same rights. I should hope so!
I'd rather not (a) everyone be the knowledgeable and (b) have only the knowledgeable have rights!
Is it wrong for me to want to eliminate his Ī for I?
Not particularly wrong, no
20:58
Hi everyone,
I am looking for a quote that basically says the same thing as the following by J.J Sakurai:
we see a number of sophisticated, yet uneducated, theoreticians who are conversant in the LSZ formalism of the Heisenberg field operators, but do not know why an excited atom radiates, or are ignorant of the quantum theoretic derivation of Rayleigh's law that accounts for the blueness of the sky.
Any suggestions?
21:36
@Mostafa I have the sad feeling that I belong to that category...
I'm excited: I got invited to be a pro-temp. moderator on History of Science and Math! I guess Inci's worst fears are becoming truth!
sets evil plans in motion
3
@Danu Congrats!
You just didn't want to wait to reach 10k to see all the deleted stuff on HSM, did you? ;)
You don't need 10k on beta sites, only 3k
@KyleKanos Only got 1k though lol
...still I'm #8 as far as rep goes, I think
So, how are you guys
I'm desperately trying to avoid studying for MQM, there's an exam tomorrow at 10 AM
damn saturday exams
21:56
@Danu Exams?! At this time of the year in Germany? That's unusual...
@ACuriousMind Midterm... only this course has one
Herr Doktor Siedentop is relentless :P
I'm trying to figure out how to not get the following ripples in my simulation:
The red lines indicate boundaries between processors
they look kinda... dynamic
At the vertical line, something unphysical is being passed
Ah, always simulations with you :P The only productive thing I did today was cooking a nice steak :D
22:01
And it's annoying me because it shouldn't be there
I'm afraid my knowledge of computers is entirely insufficient to help almost anyone out with anything programming-based
I mean no offense, but what's the point of accepting an answer you don't really understand:
2
A: Coulomb's Law in the presence of a strong gravitational field

ACuriousMindOf course Coulomb's law has to be adapted! And it is therefore fortunate that there exist manifestly covariant formulations of electromagnetism that do not care how spacetime is curved. However, we should first briefly observe that Coulomb's law is not one of the fundamental laws of electromagnet...

Man, I hate overloaded notation. The only use I know for upside-down V is as a logical "and", and super scripts are exponents. But I'm sure that's not what they mean here. — Shufflepants 6 mins ago
I was also puzzled by that
...I'm gonna ask
Anyways, I'm going to head out now....have a good weekend everyone
22:05
Probably the non-technical bits saying that Coulomb's law indeed is modified in curved space was enough for them
@KyleKanos Thanks, you too
This question brought up, again, an old question of mine: Is there a symmetry for entropy conservation?
It seems quite related to the question I linked, but not exactly the same
@Danu Is entropy an observable?
That is, can you write down an operator that could be the Noether charge of said symmetry?
That would mean there is no symmetry of the Lagrangian associated to it
@ACuriousMind I'm not sure if that's a settled question
But I guess I better take Lubos' word for it ;)
Of course, the observer dependency will mess things up, but maybe there is still something useful that can be defined
I think the "problem" is that entropy is really not a property of a state
So there can't be an operator that gives you entropy
22:24
makes perfect sense
thanks for killing my dreams ;)
@Danu Heh. My pleasure
23:02
Heya all! :)

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