that you can post like three sentences and I apparently have to do multiple hour analysis in order to understand what you mean when I'm reasonably well-read in philosophy means it's unlikely I'll be able to follow anything else you say after that quickly, either
@MoreAnonymous Yes. Why are we calling this a "system"? What exactly is a "phenomenon"? See, usually we start in epistemology with an analysis of what the relationship of sensual information (what I see, what I hear, what I smell, etc.) to things such as "a phenomenon" is
e.g. Hume thinks everything comes from the senses, while Kant thinks we need some intrinsic pure reason to even be able to organize sense data into things like distinct phenomena
and is an entirely internal experience, e.g. a dream, or doing math in my head, a "phenomenon" I "experience" in your sense?
that's a distinction likely to matter if what we want to do ultimately is discuss things like the relation of mathematical concepts to reality
According to classical Husserlian phenomenology, our experience is directed toward—represents or “intends”—things only through particular concepts, thoughts, ideas, images, etc. These make up the meaning or content of a given experience, and are distinct from the things they present or mean.
and why would I be interested in discussing Carnap, who was in some sense the "last" of the positivists, when I've repeatedly stated I (and the modern scientific method more broadly) are more on the side of Popperian falsificationism?
@MoreAnonymous I mean, yes, the question "Is metaphysics meaningless?" is something we can discuss. So we need to first establish what "metaphysics" and "meaning" means.
For instance, the sense in which I answer this question with "yes" is in the following: Meta-physics are non-falsifiable statements about reality (explanations or interpretations of physics that themselves are not directly testable), and it's meaningless in the sense that it is impossible to assign a truth value to it with any confidence since by the definition of falsificationism we generate "truth" (or confidence in "non-falsehood", rather) by testing predictions
if you define "metaphysics" or "meaning" differently, we're not so much disagreeing as talking about incommensurable things
> it's meaningless in the sense that it is impossible to assign a truth value to it with any confidence since by the definition of falsificationism we generate "truth" (or confidence in "non-falsehood", rather) by testing predictions
yes but I have no idea what you mean by "symbolic classification system " or "prediction system" since apparently I have to watch a 3h video to understand even what the word symbol means
So for instance, a metaphysical belief about good old Newtonian mechanics would be something like "The laws of Newton objectively exist and are not just tools used by humans"
the statement "an observer can't distinguish acceleration from gravity" isn't metaphysics unless it's impossible to come up with an experiment that could in principle show they're different
the only problem here is that "acceleration" and "gravity" might only be defined relative to the theory
Does anyone know for which $Z$ Moseley's law holds? Also, in the article it says that the square root of the frequency of the emitted radiation is approximately proportional to $Z$, however, I assume this only holds for $K_{\alpha}$ lines, see here.
@ACuriousMind Hi, i wanted to ask something that yesterday I didn;t fully understand. How is the statistical ensemble (which is an abstract concept of having N identical copies of the same system) tied to the phase space of a system?
Fair but I don't see for argument sake why it can't be considered. Feel free to tell me where my slight of hand is. U can replace equivalence principle with theory X
If phase space is some sort of mathematical concept of A dynamic SYSTEM, I don't get where the ensemble,a bunch of identical copies of the system, comes into play
@imbAF consider an ensemble of $N$ dice that are being thrown. We assume the dice are fair and being thrown randomly. So each die has a probability $1/6$ to land on any of the sides. The state space of a single die has 6 points (the 6 sides), but we still can talk about the frequency of outcomes of the ensemble with a probability distribution on that space of a single die, i.e. $p(n) = 1/6$
@MoreAnonymous look we can go in circles all you want but if your problem with my statement that metaphysics is meaningless is that you neither agree with my definition of metaphysics nor my definition of meaning then I don't know what purpose you think this discussion has
maybe with your definitions "metaphysics" isn't "meaningless"
why would I care, and conversely why would you care that I define these things differently?
yes, and I'm using falsificationism where confidence in the "truth" of a statement is generated by it failing to be falsified, i.e. there are observations where the statement implies a specific outcome and that's the outcome we actually observe
so this is a tautology: We cannot by definition generate confidence in the truth of a non-falsifiable statement, by definition statements for which we can't do that are meaningless, hence metaphysics is meaningless
of course you can simply choose to define either of these two words differently and then "metaphysics" might be no longer "meaningless"
So naively I can't disprove u since this is logically consistent however this does not tell me is what is metaphysics as since I can say ... But then to claim that this ant relevance to anything like the equivalence principle or many worlds (for that matter) is beyond me
"but we still can talk about the frequency of outcomes of the ensemble with a probability distribution on that space of a single die, i.e. $p(n) = 1/6$" is there a reason why we would focus on the probability of an outcome for the ensemble? Since we mostly want to focus on a system, and not N copies of it ? Is there a benefit?
@imbAF if you're saying you just want to focus on the "probability" of the system to be in a specific state, can you define what you mean by "probability" without talking about an ensemble of identically prepared system?
so why are you objecting to me using that connection between the notion of "probability of outcome for a single system" and "frequency of outcome for an ensemble of identical systems"
(if you were a ::gasp:: Bayesian you'd have objected much earlier :P)
@imbAF with the probability density you can compute probabilities for subsets of states (remember a single point has zero probability!), and these probabilities are the frequency with which a state in that subset occurs in the ensemble
I haven't fully understood what you just said, but one thing
isn't the computation of the probability with the help of pdf, the probability of the system occupying a microstate that belongs to the region, in which we integrated?
"a probability is the probability of a system to be in a particular state" and "a probability is the frequency with which that particular state would occur in an ensemble of the systems"
I don't see this any different from saying a dice should show heads one sixth of the time and then rolling it a million times and calculating the empirical probability?
If we would integrate the pdf for an arbitrary region, and the computed probability, obviously, one, then by upholding to what this statement says: "with the probability density you can compute probabilities for subsets of states (remember a single point has zero probability!), and these probabilities are the frequency with which a state in that subset occurs in the ensemble", then there's 100% probability that a state in that subset (region of integration) occurs in the ensemble?
In molecular kinetic theory in physics, a system's distribution function is a function of seven variables, f(x,y,z,t;v_{x},v_{y},v_{z}), which gives the number of particles per unit volume in single-particle phase space.
This is what I find so abstract and hard to comprehend
First of all, can I say that the phase space is an abstract mathematical concept?
In the statement above, we have a system, which is comprised of a single particle. As any system, we can creat/generate/represent it's phase space, where in it's phase space, the "volume" is filled with points, which are the microstates. So how does the probability distribution, as the statement claims, give us the number of particles per unit volume in it's phase space? Phase space=abstract non existen concept, the particles are physical, real objects.
The phase space is filled with points(microstates), not physical objects, in this case particles. I was also going to add, why multiple particles, when we are talking about the the phase space of a single one, but I guess, these is the ensemble of our system,
but I'm a bit confused what you mean by the "probability distribution, as the statement claims, give us the number of particles per unit volume in it's phase space!"
This article describes the distribution function as used in physics. You may be looking for the related mathematical concepts of cumulative distribution function or probability density function.In molecular kinetic theory in physics, a system's distribution function is a function of seven variables,
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okay, so what they mean is just my statement about the distribution of the probability density encoding the frequency of the states in the ensemble
in the language we've used so far, you could phrase that as "gives the number of systems in the ensemble per unit volume"
any distinction between these two statements is really purely philosophical, we're not disagreeing about the physical meaning of the probability density here
@ACuriousMind from earlier, then is the statement unitarily varying choice of hamiltonian $THT^{-1}$ and $T'HT'^{-1]$ with the same spectrum redundant?
a volume is a subset of continuous phase space that typically contains infinitely many points (e.g. any subset of $\mathbb{R}^3$ with non-zero volume contains uncountably many)
@imbAF now we're doing either philosophy or weird analogy again
@SillyGoose depends on whether there are other things beside the Hamiltonian spectrum you care about or not
e.g. $H=x^2$ and $H=p^2$ have the same spectrum, but certainly it's physically relevant whether the eigenstates of the Hamiltonian are eigenstates of the position or of the momentum operator
the next part of the paper is about dualities XD where hamiltonians may have the same spectrum (and thus both be local) but not be related by unitary transformations and so are not equivalent
as we discussed probability and "number of systems in the ensemble in a state" are the same notion, so this means we have to say something like "number of systems in the ensemble per unit volume"
@ACuriousMind as we discussed probability and "number of systems in the ensemble in a state" are the same notion, so this means we have to say something like "number of systems in the ensemble per unit volume", should you in the last statement say number of systems in the ensemble in a state per unit volume, or no?