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6:00 PM
@Blue As per the note, we consider some observables which can't be expressed with x and p as irrelevant
 
Anonymous
In physics, complementarity is both a theoretical and an experimental result of quantum mechanics, also referred to as principle of complementarity. It holds that objects have certain pairs of complementary properties which cannot all be observed or measured simultaneously. The complementarity principle was formulated by Niels Bohr, a leading founder of quantum mechanics. Examples of complementary properties that Bohr considered: Position and momentum Energy and duration Spin on different axes Wave and particle-related properties Value of a field and its change (at a certain position) Entanglement...
 
Anonymous
> A crucial difference between classical quantities and quantum mechanical observables is that the latter may not be simultaneously measurable, a property referred to as complementarity. This is mathematically expressed by non-commutativity of the corresponding operators, to the effect that the commutator
 
Anonymous
@taritgoswami I don't think that statement makes any sense
 
The point of scattering is to ask how the particle would deviate from an otherwise well-known trajectory, the simplest thing to ask is - how would a free particle at constant velocity deviate due to a scattering center, an experiment like Rutherford is trying to fire electrons in such a way so that they behave as free particles at constant velocity once they are shot and then end up acting as free particles again once scattered so that we can focus only on the scattering properties
 
Anonymous
Maybe ask your prof to clarify
 
6:02 PM
That means there are some observables that can't be expressed using x and p, though we don't need them as using x and p we can understand any dynamics fully
 
@taritgoswami there are very important oberservables that cant be expressed in terms of x and p: the spin degree of freedom
 
What's the difference between a particle in the narrow region missing the scattering center and a particle outside the narrow region (in a model where we're not constrained by the size of the electron gun size) missing the scattering center if all we care about are the particles that do scatter
 
Anonymous
"That means there are some observables that can't be expressed using x and p"
 
Anonymous
And I'm asking for an example of such an observable
 
@Blue let me check the notes again tomorrow. :p
 
6:04 PM
a particle cant miss the target is the beam is narrow enough so that the wavefunction is spread over the space where the potential is nonzero
 
@Blue as @curiosity stated, spin is one such
 
Anonymous
@taritgoswami How do you define spin in classical mechanics?
 
In Rutherford's scattering experiment most of the particles do miss the target
 
yea but those go straight through, at $\theta =0$
 
It sounds to me like you're saying we can make the beam so small we can be sure the electron follows a certain path
 
6:06 PM
they dont hit the detector at other angles
we can make to beam so small that the wavefunction will interact with the whole potential, but still be narrow enough so that it wont reach the detector for other angles but zero degrees
 
How do you know they go straight through
 
because i can put the detector at $\theta =0$ and measure the scattering amplitude there
 
@Blue what I have understood, in classical mechanics spin is irrelevant then.. As the note stating that "any observables we can't express with x and p are irrelevant in classical mechanics", though it is relevant in QM
 
then i know how many will go through
 
So the detector has infinitely small size
 
6:08 PM
practically
 
That's impossible, non-zero angles are always possible no matter how small, you have no idea
We can't tell if some fired off at a tiny angle
 
Anonymous
@taritgoswami It's not irrelevant, it's non-existent. There's no notion of spin in classical mechanics similar to that in quantum mechanics.
 
sure but i neglect the error of the angle
its neglectable in comparison to an angle of $\frac{\pi}{4}$ , say
 
@Blue Ooh, we don't have notion of spin in classical mechanics, right
 
which is perfectly relevant in a scattering experiment
 
6:10 PM
So we're already doing approximations, I see, and what's the difference between using a wave function where a free particle is constrained to definitely hit the scattering center, and a wave function where the free particle could hit the scattering center or miss it
 
Half-integer spin, at least
 
the difference is whether we say that the beam can reach the detector at large angles like $\frac{\pi}{4}$
 
@Blue It will be good to see examples of classical observables that can't expressed using x and p
 
which it cant do in experiments like the one from rutherford
 
Anonymous
@taritgoswami There's none
 
6:12 PM
you can perhapd make sense of integer-valued spin in some classical way
 
Anonymous
@Semiclassical Like angular momentum?
 
right
 
Anonymous
But for that we'd have to deal with a system of particles
 
Anonymous
Single particles are point particles in CM, which are completely defined by $x$ and $p$
 
Anonymous
6:14 PM
And if you define spin using a system of particles, even then it will be defined by $(x_1,x_2,...,p_1,p_2,...)$ plus constraints
 
Anonymous
Tarit was asking for an example of an observable in CM which cannot be defined by $\mathbf{x},\mathbf{p}$
 
Anonymous
I'm pretty sure there can't be any
 
@curiosity not sure what you mean, but the model where you begin with incoming plane waves of course derives the Rutherford cross section
 
what are you not sure about?
what part?
 
How are all the books doing something wrong if it rederives this result
 
6:16 PM
i dont claim they are wrong
im saying i dont understand why they are right
i dont see why a model where the incoming particle beam is as broad as the whole laboratory would predict the right scattering amlitudes
since in the real experiment the beam is narrow
so narrow that it cant reach other angles but zero (approximately)
only if it was scattered
 
They are right because they model the incoming particle as an asymptotically free particle that scatters off a scattering center into another asymptotically free particle and an experiment like Rutherford gives exactly this behavior even though you think we have to model the incoming electrons as constrained in a certain region, there is no experimentally creatable electron gun that could constrain them to fire in a narrow enough region, there is always uncertainty in the electron direction
 
but this uncertainty is very small compared to an angle of $\frac{\pi}{4}$
this is how broad the beam spreads
not more
 
@Blue Probably non-existance of such observables is stated as irrelevant
 
But they travel such a long distance you can't ignore it, there is no way you can make them all fire at the angle $\theta = 0$, even a tiny angle will add up as it moves along the path
 
I mean, if the argument is that the scattering theory calculations on a standard QM book are not sufficiently realistic to be applied directly to an actual system
 
6:24 PM
thats just not true, you can make the beam straight enough so that the error of the angle is negligible in comparison to something like pi
 
Anonymous
@taritgoswami Possibly
 
@sem
@Semiclassical im talking about that fact that we equate two asymptotic expressions of the wavefunction
 
Well, that’s probably true. But the solution is presumably to look at a book that talks about actual detector geometry
 
where in one of the expression there is a plane wave term
that should not exist in my opinion
 
Not only the detector geometry, also the electron-gun geometry and the scattering center geometry lol
 
6:26 PM
$ \psi(\vec x) \sim \sum_l \frac{A_l}{kr} \sin(kr - l\pi/2 + \delta_l) P_l(\cos \theta) $
 
Well, there’s definitely one problem with a plane wave solution : a real scatterer has a finite width in position space
 
In $\Psi = e^{ikz} + f(\theta) \frac{e^{ikr}}{r}$ the argument is that $e^{ikz}$ is wrong because the electron gun has a finite width and constrains the incoming particles to a finite region while $e^{ikz}$ allows for any incoming region
 
and $\psi(\vec{x}) \sim e^{ikz} + f(\theta) \frac{e^{ikr}}{r}$
 
need 150 more rep...
 
Anonymous
6:27 PM
@taritgoswami Done
 
there’s a pertinent reference in Griffiths as far as the 1D case goes, let me track it down
 
@Blue I'm left with only 6%charge :p
 
Anonymous
Okay, we can talk later then
 
Bye for now
 
Anonymous
Bbye
 
6:29 PM
K
 
The other related problem is that, if you send a single particle towards a scattering center, this should presumably be a time-dependent process
Whereas the standard calculation is time-independent
 
yes in that case i think we have to treat it as a wave packet
i think we can approximate it with the plane wave though
but not with one that extents over a large angle
 
Well, I suspect the out is that we’re only interested in scattering amplitudes
 
yea
 
We don’t care about time-of-flight measurements, at least not in this setup
 
6:33 PM
but we should care about the beam being narrow
 
Narrow relative to what, though
I don’t think an electron beam will typically be narrower than the scatterer
 
yes not with respect to the scatterer but to the position of the detector
we dont want any incoming particles to reach the detector at any other angle but zero degrees
 
I don’t think you can require that. Even in Rutherford scattering you have the possibility of back-scattering for instance
 
yes sure scattered particles can reach any angle
 
It may or may not be probable but I don’t see why it’d be forbidden
 
6:37 PM
but the particles cant go out of the gun and directly into the detector
 
Sure they can
 
Maybe a way to say it is, in $\Psi = e^{ikz} + f(\theta) \frac{e^{kr}}{r}$ the term $e^{ikz}$ represents no scattering occurring while $ f(\theta) \frac{e^{kr}}{r}$ represents the scattering occurring, and just because only a small region may pass through the electron gun it doesn't mean that inside the electron gun we didn't have what amounts to free particles moving
 
They’d just miss the scatterer
 
not at angles other then zero
 
They’d just miss the scattering center
 
6:38 PM
yes but then they would only reach the detector if it was at $\theta =0$
 
Eh. I’d want an actual geometry before I’d commit to that
 
If we ignore reality and just allow $\theta = 0$ why is there a problem
Incoming
 
@bolbteppa i agree, but only for $\theta =0$
 
So if all the particles go towards the scattering center at $\theta = 0$, they don't all have to scatter, the ones that don't scatter are represented by $e^{ikz}$ and the ones that do by $f(\theta) \dots$
 
yes
but when we consider the asymptotic form of the wavefunction at large angles, the literature still keeps the $exp(i k z)$ part
 
6:42 PM
 
yes thats exactly the picture i have in mind
in the asymptotic form, the $exp(i k z)$ part should only be kept for $\theta =0$ thats my claim
 
I think the pertinent question is "which literature"
if we're talking intro QM books, I'd believe it
 
griffiths
messiah
25
Q: Phase shifts in scattering theory

CogitatorI have been studying scattering theory in Sakurai's quantum mechanics. The phase shift in scattering theory has been a major conceptual and computational stumbling block for me. How (if at all) does the phase shift relate to the scattering amplitude? What does it help you calculate? Also, any...

this answer
 
sure. I'd chalk it up to them not trying to be completely realistic
 
also my lecture at university
every literature that ive seen, frankly
 
6:45 PM
presumably a more realistic treatment would account for the finite transverse width of the incoming electron beam
 
thats hard to believe
for me
 
So the question is, why do we keep $e^{ikz}$ in $\Psi = e^{ikz} + f(\theta) \frac{e^{ikr}}{r}$ if the particle scatters?
 
yea
 
because you're solving it as though the incoming beam has infinite transverse width
that's fine for an intro textbook
 
in order to derive the form of the phase shift and the coefficients in $\psi(\vec x) \sim \sum_l \frac{A_l}{kr} \sin(kr - l\pi/2 + \delta_l) P_l(\cos \theta)$
we set this expression equal to $\Psi = e^{ikz} + f(\theta) \frac{e^{ikr}}{r}$
why dont we just set it equal to $\Psi = f(\theta) \frac{e^{ikr}}{r}$ for $\theta \neq 0$
and to the term plus plane wave for $\theta =0$
 
6:55 PM
one thing I will note is that, if you want precise answers to this, you should probably ask an experimental particle physicist
 
One point, you can explicitly derive $\Psi = e^{ikz} + f(\theta) \frac{e^{ikr}}{r}$ by approximating the Green function solution of the Schrodinger equation
 
i know the derivation, we dont have to add the $exp(i k z)$ term, it just doesnt mess up the solution
its a boundary condition that we're allowed to change
we have to solve
$(\Delta+k^2)\psi_k(\vec x)=U(r)\psi_k(\vec x) $
 
Slide 39 and 40 tcm.phy.cam.ac.uk/~bds10/aqp/lec20-21_compressed.pdf you do need to add it, it's the homogeneous solution you need to include as part of solving an inhomogeneous linear differential equation
 
$\psi_k(\vec x)=\psi_0(\vec x)+\int G(\vec x-\vec y)\psi_k(\vec y)d^3y$ does the trick, with or without the $\psi_0(\vec x)$
 
So they call it Lippmann-Schwinger for some reason
 
6:59 PM
$(\Delta+k^2)\psi_0=0 $
its a solution even without the $\psi_0$
 
So you're asking why can't we just ignore the homogeneous solutions of a linear PDE
 
yea
if the boundary conditions force us to do so
the BC are given by the experimental setup, which is a narrow beam
 
One thing to note, I guess, is that you can go from a wide beam to a narrow beam by convolving the former with a gaussian
 
if we could show that this convolution doesnt change the scattering amplitude, i would be happy
 
well, I don't think you'll be able to avoid the following: If you change the transverse width of your electron beam, then the scattering distribution should change
the wide-angle portion should presumably be unchanged, but the small-angle part would change
 
7:06 PM
yea there is no reason to expect that it wouldnt change the scattering distribution
 
with the 'small-angle' regime being determined by the beam width and the size of the detector
 
thats why i had the trouble with the plane wave in the first place
i guess i will ask my professor about that
seems we wont reach a conclusion now
but thanks for the discussion guys!
 
I think this comes down to quantum mechanics
If the particle was incoming, you can't ignore the probability that it might end up as an outgoing particle without scattering
 
whereas I think this comes down to considerations of experimental context
 
I remember seeing a justification for why the end result is $\Psi = A [ e^{ikz} + f(\theta) \dots ]$ and not $\Psi = A e^{ikz} + B f(\theta) \dots$
The latter possibility is the only way you can possibly ignore the homogeneous solution
 
7:10 PM
i mean, if you see a particle backscatter, then there really should be no probability that that occurred without the particle scattering
 
I forget why now
 
well just plug the psi into the schroedinger equation and you will see that we can have a solution without the plane wave
 
I guess it's also worth noting that, in actual practice, what you'd probably do are two experiments
 
with $(\Delta+k^2)G(\vec x)=\delta(\vec x) $
 
1) do the scattering experiment without any scatterer
2) include the scatterer
 
7:11 PM
$\psi_k(\vec x)=\int G(\vec x-\vec y)\psi_k(\vec y)d^3y$ is a solution
 
the difference between the two is presumably the interesting part
 
But in QM you need the most general solution by linearity/superposition principle
 
not if you want to solve a particular problem
 
You then need to use the general solution to argue why some terms are zero in a specific example
 
yes and the picture you posted captures the argument
im out guys
 
7:14 PM
The only way you could do that is if $\Psi = A e^{ikz} + B f(\theta) \dots$ were the wave function, but for some reason $\Psi = A [ e^{ikz} + f(\theta) \dots ]$ is actually the wave function, you can't ignore the $e^{ikz}$
 
have a nice evening
 
@bolbteppa Well, here's my problem with it: Suppose there wasn't a scatterer there at all.
Then you'd have $\Psi = Ae^{i k z}$. That's fine if you're within the beam width, but not outside of it
 
You can rewrite this in terms of an S matrix where the identity part $I$ is $e^{ikz}$ with no scattering as well
 
hmm
I mean, I can understand there being dispersion in the transverse direction as you move along the direction of the beam. but the beam should nevertheless have finite transverse width no matter how far you look, so long as no scattering actually happens
 
I mean the beam is so big with respect to the electons atomic dimensions it can be treated as a plane wave, I think that's fine right?
Wait, because you are working with only one homogeneous solution and then the inhomogeneous term, why do you need separate coefficients or to form linear combinations
Why would you just randomly ignore the homogeneous solutions of an inhomogeneous linear pde
Abstractly one would expect the homogeneous solution to be a linear combination of a bunch of things and then adding the inhomogeneous solution before trying to fix the coefficients in that linear combination right
No you need to justify why the coefficients are what they are, hmm
 
8:32 PM
@bolbteppa it's not the same thing, but I imagine you could pose a similar question as far as classical scattering by EM waves
 
Most sources I remember seeing just skip explaining this, even ones that get it from 'Lippmann-Schwinger'
I vaguely remember it being a good reason :(
 
well, how many sources are intended for particle physics experimentalists?
 
0 :p
 
8:48 PM
well, there you go :P
this looks like a more exhaustive treatment: books.google.com/…
 
9:06 PM
do I dare to write a post about energy in GR...do I...
 
do you dare disturb the universe
 
hmmm
Reminds me of J. Alfred Prufrock
 
This might be a really dumb question but if $\vec v_A(t)=f_i(t)\hat i+f_j(t)\hat j$ and $\vec v_B(t)=g_i(t)\hat i+g_j(t)\hat j$ where $v_x$ is the velocity of $x$, then is the relative velocity of $B$ w.r.t $A$ just given by $\vec v_{B/A} = (g_i(t)-f_i(t))\hat i+(g_j(t)-f_j(t))\hat j\ ?$
 
Anonymous
@CooperCape Yes
 
And the same holds for $r_{A/B}$, where $r$ is displacement right?
 
9:09 PM
@enumaris as it should
 
Anonymous
@CooperCape Right
 
I'm trying to prove that for two objects at their point of closest approach $\vec r_{B/A}\cdot\vec v_{B/A}=0$ but it's not working out
 
At least non-relativistically it's right :D
 
At least i got that part correct
Trust I'm no where near to the point of being able to lorentz transform this
 
wait, maybe it's also correct relativistically if by "w.r.t." you don't mean moving to the frame of A but just the separation speed within the original frame...
too lazy to think that one through
 
Anonymous
9:12 PM
1
Q: Why must closest approach occur when relative velocity is perpendicular to motion?

BLAZE The first part i) I can solve correctly, but I need some advice and intuition on how to solve the second part ii). Here is the mark-scheme for the question: But for part ii) I do not understand their logic as shown in red i need to know why this must be the case for closest approach. Coul...

 
I mean they're measured to be moving from the perspective of one stationary inertial frame of reference
@Blue I did see that but I kind of wanted a more algebraic approach
Although maybe that's not plausible
 
Anonymous
Everything is possible algebraically. I'm a bit too sleepy now though
 
Anonymous
I'll see tomorrow morning
 
I'm gonna try and crack on with it tonight - thanks.
@Blue Actually I didn't look at the second answer on that post which gives a better explanation I think - might just use that but I'll still have a go with it algebraically.
 
@CooperCape I thought you said "I'm gonna try and have crack tonight"
 
9:23 PM
@Avantgarde In Manchester - anything is possible
(Definitely neither true or quotable or said by anyone, ever)
 
-CooperCape
circa 2018
 
I like this.
Oh I did it
It was actually quite easy
I just needed to not be lazy - classic
 
Anonymous
@CooperCape Yes, either $r_A=r_B$ or $d|\vec{r}_{A/B}|/dt = 0$ at minimum approach, isn't it?
 
Yeah that was what I did
Which is just repeatedly using product/chain rule
And after expanding horribly the part that isn't in the $(h(t))^{-1/2})$ (i.e the only part that can equal $0$) comes out to be equal to $r\cdot v$.
 
9:52 PM
still debating...
 
Hello people. Could anybody help me with the "car and bicycle rider" problem, please? Here's the link for the problem: ocw.mit.edu/courses/physics/8-01sc-classical-mechanics-fall-2016/assignments/MIT‌​8_01F16_pset1_new.pdf
I tried to integrate the function to determine $v(t)$ and then integrate $v(t)$ to determine $x(t)$. $v(t)=b, 0 < t < t_1$ and $x(t)= bt, 0 < t < t_1$ Also, $v(t)=-c(\frac{t^2}{2}+t_1t), t_1 < t < t_2$ and $x(t)=-\frac{t^3c}{6} + \frac{ct^2t_1}{2}, t_1 < t < t_2$
 
I get a page not found error
 
@MauricioMendes So what's the problem?
You probably want a continuous velocity function
 
You're solving part b?
or part a?
 
10:07 PM
@enumaris part a
 
So at $t = t_1$, your expressions for the velocity should match
 
@Lozansky i wanna know if my steps are correct
 
And same for the position function
 
are you using $b$ as a proxy for $v_0$
 
@enumaris yup
@Lozansky when doing so, i got $t_1^2=\frac{b}{c}$
 
10:12 PM
When you integrated to get $v(t)$ you need to remember to include the constant of integration..also it looks like there should be a minus sign between the two terms rather than a plus sign.
same for $x(t)$
 
@enumaris As for the constant of integration, should it be $v_0$?
 
So it should be $v(t)=-c(t^2/2-t_1 t)+A$ where $A$ is some constant with units of velocity and then you have to use the initial condition $v(t=t_1)=v_0$ to determine what $A$ is
Don't think so, the constant of integration will be some function of $v_0$ and $c$
wait
right, the condition you have to use is $v(t=t_1)=v_0$ rather than $v(t=0)=v_0$ because your expression for $v(t)$ is only valid for $t_1<t<t_2$
 
@enumaris So $A=v_0 - \frac{ct_1^2}{2}$?
 
looks right to me
Now do the same for $x(t)$
Anyone here good with python? I have a question about how best to pass variables...
 
10:28 PM
@enumaris Before getting $x(t)$, do I have to substitute $A$ in $v(t)$ and then integrate it?
 
hmmm...actually I think I got it :D
@MauricioMendes yeah, but it's a constant so integrating it should be simple
 
@enumaris Ok, thanks!
 
np
 
11:18 PM
Hey everyone!
I would like to know why my question was put on hold:
0
Q: Find forces applied that supports a block

manoooohThe pen of the figure hangs a block of mass $m = 1020~kg$. Find the modules of the forces applied in supports $A$ and $B$. I did the following, where $T_A$ is tension at point $A$, $T_B$ is the tension at point $B$ and $P=1020\cdot10=10200~N$ is weight (taking as reference the positive $x$-a...

That question is about forces and I showed my work. I don't know why...
 
"Check my work" kind of questions are off-topic for the main site
In order to make your post acceptable from the main site, you'd have to extract some conceptual question out of it and ask about that...you can ask your question here in chat though and probably someone will help you.
 
Anonymous
11:35 PM
@manooooh There's a dedicated Problem Solving room for such questions
 
ugh, this last 150 rep is annoying to get lol
none of my recent answers are getting many upvotes...
 
Anonymous
-4
Q: How is spacetime created with reference to bosons and gravity

Warren de MoorI have a theory that bosons, which confer gravity, are actually created by the decay of heavy elements. Hence a black hole is the biggest creator in the galaxy. This creates an outward flow of bosons from anything with mass. We observe this as a bending in spacetime as the bosons are in many ways...

 
Anonymous
How this question pass through without getting closed as "non-mainstream" for 9 hours?
 
I flagged it
dunno how long it takes mods to see it
 
Anonymous
ACM isn't around today
 
Anonymous
11:39 PM
Hmm
 
-2
A: Is the dark matter present only around the galaxies?

Ben GardnerDark matter is a supersolid that fills 'empty' space, strongly interacts with ordinary matter and is displaced by ordinary matter. What is referred to geometrically as curved spacetime physically exists in nature as the state of displacement of the supersolid dark matter. The state of displacemen...

I also flagged that answer as non-mainstream
and it hasn't been taken care of either
 
Anonymous
 
Anonymous
@enumaris How do you flag answers as non-mainstream? ^
 
oh, I just flagged for moderator
and put it in my description
 
Anonymous
Oh, I see
 
11:47 PM
@Blue why it's impossible for answers to be non-mainstream!
 
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