« first day (2598 days earlier)      last day (2330 days later) » 

1:02 PM
@Slereah there’s a bunch of definitions. What you’ve wrote is none of them.
 
I vaguely remember it being a subset that can be considered the image of an immersion+embedding map
 
@0celo7 can an immersed manifold be non-injective
Or is that just an immersion map
 
Yes
 
Sub things always mess up, e.g. sub-lie-groups
 
And the immersed manifold has to be injective
 
1:04 PM
A figure 8 is immersed
 
Yes to which, tho
Is it a submanifold, though?
Since it doesn't have a manifold structure
 
@Slereah Manifolds can't be injective, only their immersions or embeddings.
 
It’s an immersed sbmanifold
 
Alright
 
@ACuriousMind I’ve given up trying to get him to say things correctly
 
1:04 PM
So what's the correct definition of a submanifold
Is it just some map $f : N \to M$
 
Why don’t you check Lee
 
I do
 
@Slereah It depends on what you want to do, there's no "correct" one. Sometimes you want to count immersed submanifolds among them, sometimes you don't
 
There’s five different kinds of submanifolds
 
But he doesn't seem to define them
Only specific types of submanifolds
 
1:05 PM
Yes, because there’s many types
 
yeah but is there some commonality to them all
 
Oh, are you under the mistaken assumption that all these "specific types" are a subset of some general definition that would be useful?
They aren't :P
 
Am I mistaken
Dang it
shakes fist at the heavens
Because I can't say "a subset of $M$ with manifold structure", since that's not true of the figure 8 either
 
Again, what you want to define as a submanifolds really just depends on what "nice" properties you need for what you intend to do with them
 
Is "some mapping $f : N \to M$" not true for some types submanifolds?
It is fairly generic
 
1:08 PM
@Slereah Sure, but without making some demands of that mapping that's gonna be completely useless
 
yeah
But I'd like to have something to go on in the intro
Before going into more specific submanifolds
 
Also more importantly
Do we care about immersions in GR?
 
What are the 5 types of definitions
 
Are they useful
There's immersions, submersions and embeddings
@ACuriousMind I dunno
 
1:09 PM
Why would you introduce a notion of submanifold that's literally useless? If you're just in an intro, you likely can get away with just saying the embedding/immersion/whatever has "nice properties".
 
If I have a chapter for three different things
I guess I want some commonality explained?
Even if it's just a throwaway line
 
The gist is, an injective map between two manifolds will initially only have one topology, and so you have immersed one manifold into the other, however if the topology then matches up with that of the image manifold you have an embedded submanifold
 
And as soon as you want to do something technical you have to pick one of the proper definitions, anyway
 
Where are there 5 variations in this picture
 
But not all such maps are injectives
As mentionned
 
1:10 PM
@bolbteppa Embedded, immersed, “standard”, regular, proper (something like that)
 
@0celo7 which one is submersion
 
That one too
 
@Slereah I don't think there's any "commonality" to explain, beyond there always being a map.
 
Check R.W. Sharpe’s book
 
@0celo7 are there any useful non-injective immersions in GR
 
1:11 PM
They are small differences compared to the picture above
 
I can't really think of a context where that would pop up
Except maybe like
Path of a particle mapped to the spacelike hypersurface
 
For the proof of the positive mass theorem for locally conformally flat manifolds they’re very important
 
Guess I'd better do 'em then
Also which one is the submanifold
Is it $N$ or $f(N)$
 
@Slereah only if you want to read my thesis
@Slereah the image
But you can abuuuuuse that language
 
A great example of why manifold theory is ridiculously pedantic if taken seriously
 
1:14 PM
Like calling the vector components the vector???
 
Even if $N$ is a subset, you have to call it's image under the identity map $I(N)$ the submanifold
(This is why physicists often advance math)
 
Is it because they don't care about math
Speaking of which
 
Adapting to the language of set theory just sometimes leads to convoluted ways to say obvious things, makes sense, but still
 
If wavefunctions on $I$ admit wavefunctions that aren't $0$ at the boundaries
But not as part of the spectrum of $H$
Are they part of the spectrum of $e^{itH}$
and if so what's the link between the basis of the two
 
confused Jackie Chan
 
1:19 PM
@Slereah what
 
The eigenbasis of $H$ is like $\{ \sin(kx) \}$
 
Please use terminology properly - the spectrum of an operator is a subset of the complex plane, not a bunch of wavefunctions.
 
Which should generate the whole domain of $H$
 
Has this anything to do with submanifolds or have you abruptly switched topics without giving any context? :P
 
But on the other hand, wavefunctions with $\psi(0) \neq 0$ should be valid
@ACuriousMind It doesn't
 
1:21 PM
@ACuriousMind German detected.
 
But they're not part of $H$'s domain
 
Hat das irgendetwas to tun...
 
But since $e^{itH}$ is a bounded operator, its domain should be all of the Hilbert space
Including those wavefunctions
 
@Slereah Yes. What's the problem?
 
What's the eigenbasis of $e^{itH}$ then?
And what's its link to the one of $H$?
 
1:22 PM
He’s asking if the eigenfunctions of that guy (if they exist) are somehow eigenfunctions of H
 
that guy is called the time evolution operator
 
I can’t remember, is that guy even compact?
 
In physics you usually just write $e^{it E_n}$ for the eigenvalues
But if their basis is different, it seems weird
 
@Slereah Whose basis?
 
The basis of $\text{Dom}(H)$ and $\text{Dom(e^{itH}) = H}$
 
1:25 PM
That doesn't make any sense :P
These are different spaces, how could their "basis" ever be the same? One is dense in the other, though
 
Though I guess $Dom(H)$ is dense in $H$ so I dunno
@ACuriousMind Because in physics that's what you do :p
You pretend they're the same
 
What is what you do
 
So I'm wondering what's up with that
 
I get that you're confused about something relating to energy eigenfunctions, but I can't quite make out what exactly the issue is
 
You just decompose the wavefunction in the basis of $H$ for the time evolution operator
 
1:27 PM
@ACuriousMind they could (and should) have the same Hilbert basis
Well, “the”. They should have “a” Hilbert basis that works for both.
Not that it will be an eigenbasis of course
 
@0celo7 How do you write a wavefunction that doesn't vanish at the boundaries from functions that do, though
 
@Slereah I don't know what that's supposed to mean.
 
Like $$e^{itH} \psi = \sum e^{itH} \psi_n = \sum e^{itE_n} \psi_n$$
 
@ACuriousMind Huh. TIL the harmonic oscillator is bounded.
 
@0celo7 Hm
 
1:29 PM
Seems like you're saying that $\{ \sin (kx) \}$ is a set of eigenfunctions for $\hat{H}$, so you can expand $\psi$ in terms of them, but then saying that even though the solution to Schrodinger $\psi = e^{-i\hat{H}t}\psi_0$ so that $e^{-i\hat{H}t}$ has to act on the same basis, this $e^{-i\hat{H}t}$ operator can also act on other functions for some reason there is an issue?
 
(This discussion isn't helped by the fact that I'm using $H$ for both the Hamiltonian and Hilbert space)
 
@Slereah Use $\mathscr H$ for the Hilbert space.
 
That's a lot of characters to type
 
I have a single fluid motion for \mathscr
 
@Slereah Ah, yes. There's an implicit assumption there that the $\psi_n$ are located in the Hamiltonian's domain, of course. Is that your problem?
 
1:31 PM
Yes.
 
What is the problem with that, though?
 
Well, shouldn't the basis be wider?
 
Why?
 
You are just considering a Lie group vs. a Lie algebra acting on the same vector space
 
What do you mean by "wider"?
 
1:32 PM
I'm pretty sure you can't generate all wavefunctions of the Hilbert space with that basis
 
The domain of definition of the unexponentiated operator should be dense.
 
Yeah that is what I'm thinking as kind of the solution, but only in a vague sense
I have no idea of how it would actually work
 
@Slereah Why? Do consider that the Hilbert space consists of equivalence classes, not functions, so you need to treat physicist statements like $\psi(0) = 0$ very carefully.
 
That could be the problem, yes
 
@ACuriousMind Explain the boundary conditions in the particle in the box please.
That is what you need to explain to him
He's bad at telling you that
 
1:33 PM
Think you're asking about whether in exponentiating from a Lie algebra to the Lie group acting on a vector space, this process should make the basis wider i.e. add more functions in the process?
 
Well apparently not!
 
@bolbteppa You're talking complete nonsense
 
@0celo7 yes to someone who hasn't studied basic lie theory
 
Oh no, you called me out!
 
@0celo7 The domain of definition on which the momentum operator is self-adjoint is the one with apropriate boundary conditions.
 
1:35 PM
@ACuriousMind Don't tell me that
(also Neumann conditions get you that)
Why did the caveman physicists originally give that problem Dirichlet boundary conditions?
key word being physicists
 
Is @Slereah's problem he doesn't believe that domain of definition is dense?
 
I hope not
 
Then I don't know what the problem is.
 
@Slereah $C^\infty_0(\Omega)$ is always dense in $L^p(\Omega)$, $\Omega\subset\Bbb R^n$ open.
 
I do believe that it is dense
It's more that, from a naive perspective
if $\sin(kx)$ is the basis
I don't see how you could get something without those boundary conditions by summing them
 
1:37 PM
@Slereah Are we in a box or on the real line?
 
In a box
$[0,L]$
 
@ACuriousMind how does one justify the boundary conditions phyically?
 
@0celo7 "Continuity of the wavefunction" ::cringes::
 
the eternal struggle between math and physics
 
@ACuriousMind I was going to say you're not allowed to say that.
 
1:38 PM
@Slereah You're not summing functions, you're taking the limit of a series in $L^2$-space
 
How would I get, for example, the wavefunction $\psi(x) = 1/L$ from the basis, for instance?
Is there such a series
 
@Slereah Sure. Its Fourier series, obviously.
 
or $\psi(x) = 1$, if we just pick $L = 1$
Ah yes, makes sense
Basically you just get the slope at 0 steeper until the limit is just $1$ at $0$?
 
Note that the Fourier series of a constant is a constant, though.
 
true
But the same applies for any other function that doesn't vanish at the boundaries, I guess
btw is $\langle a, b \rangle + \langle c, d \rangle = \langle a + c, b + d \rangle$ in a Hilbert space?
It would help for a proof if it did
Otherwise I'll have to expand inside
 
1:46 PM
@Slereah The product literally behaves like the dot product of ordinary vectors. Is that true for ordinary vectors?
 
Trying to do the exercize with $$\frac{d}{dt} \langle \psi, \phi \rangle = \langle \frac{d}{dt}\psi, \phi \rangle + \langle \psi, \frac{d}{dt}\phi \rangle$$
@ACuriousMind I guess not!
Guess I'll have to do the Taylor expansion of $\psi(x + h)$
 
@Slereah I've done that one!
use the definition of derivative
 
That's what I did yes
 
I think you just mimick the proof of the standard product rule for that one :P
 
@Slereah wtf
@ACuriousMind yeah and also use the fact that $\langle f,-\rangle$ is continuous
 
1:49 PM
I get $$\lim_{h \to 0} \frac 1 h (\langle \phi(t+h), \psi(t) \rangle + \langle \phi(t), \psi(t+h) \rangle - 2 \langle \phi(t), \psi(t) \rangle)$$
Hence the need to expand
 
You don't need to expand anything, but I have no idea how you arrived at that expression.
 
From $ \langle \frac{d}{dt}\psi, \phi \rangle + \langle \psi, \frac{d}{dt}\phi \rangle$
Put in the definition of derivatives
Then by linearity
Or do I need to start from $\frac{d}{dt} \langle \psi, \phi \rangle$ instead
 
Oh, you're starting at the r.h.s.
 
Yes
But I guess that using the same proof as the product rule sounds like a good idea yeah
 
you're gonna add and subtract things if memory serves
 
1:56 PM
Yeah the old $ + a - a$ trick
 
Hate that so much
(only cause I'm too basic to figure out that on ma own...)
 
0
Q: Using @ with any username

Hydrous CaperillaI was wondering if attaching @ with any username sends them a message in their mailbox or does it have no significance

 
Most analysis is basically the same tricks over and over
Just gotta remember to do them
Second exercize is $AB - BA = cI$ in finite dimension
Which ironically I saw a proof for the specific $=0$ part a few days ago
But no idea why $= cI$ first
Oh wait, maybe it's the same proof?
Take the trace
$Tr(AB - BA) = Tr(AB) - Tr(BA) = Tr(AB) - Tr(AB) = 0$
I guess that doesn't help for the $cI$ part
Can you express all operators as $A = \sum c_{ij} |\psi_i \rangle \langle \psi_j|$ in finite dimensions
 
@Slereah Yes.
That's quite literally what a matrix is, the $c_{ij}$ are the matrix coefficients in the $\psi_i$ basis
 
What is this """matrix""" you speak of
Is the commutator of all matrices $I$?
 
2:06 PM
@Slereah No, why would it be?
 
Because that's the exercize
Oh wait
I misread the exercize
That's a hypothesis, not the result
So I guess the trace argument works
$Tr(AB - BA) = 0$, $Tr(cI) = cN$, hence $c = 0$
Now to show that $(cA)^* = \bar c A^*$
$\langle \phi, (cA)\psi \rangle = c \langle \phi, A\psi \rangle = c \langle A^*\phi, \psi \rangle = \langle \bar c A^*\phi, \psi \rangle$
There we go
 
@Slereah are you becoming a functional analyst?
 
God forbid
just trying to go through Hall unscathed
It's weird that he asks to prove that $[A,B]$ is self-adjoint if $A$ and $B$ are but not that $(AB)^* = B^* A^*$
 
2:28 PM
Guy goes through Arnold's mechanics book apparently
 
a bold choice for a class
"We're going to show you why a ball falls to the ground using symplectic geometry"
 
For A,B s.a., then [A,B], if properly defined, is skew-selfadjoint.
 
Well, $1/i\hbar [A,B]$
Not the commutator proper
 
@Slereah Then you should quote the problem fully, not approximately.
 
You're not my mom
 
2:39 PM
@DanielC We've been telling him that for quite some time ;P
 
A piece of advice is fortunately not mandatory, so you have the option to do as you please, of course.
 
@ACuriousMind who has the time to know what they're doing
I just stumble down physics like some very steep stairs
 
That is not really physics, but mathematics.
 
3:00 PM
@Slereah You're right. I am
 
D:
 
You should quote the theorem fully, not approximately
A correctly stated theorem a day keeps the cranks away
 
@BalarkaSen that’s what I keep telling these physicists but they insist on being wrong
 
If we had to wait until theorems were correctly stated we'd never do physics :p
 
The world would be a better place
 
3:06 PM
well no atom bomb I suppose
 
That too
But above all, physics is an abomination of science
4
 
Good thing you don't read psychology
 
@BalarkaSen you are learning well
 
a-bombination
 
Hadron
 
3:11 PM
@0celo7 so is non-relativistic QM real
Or is it fake like QFT
 
It’s very real
Completely rigorous for the most part
The only thing that’s fake is geometric quantization
 
What about deformation quantization
 
Good lord how is r/furry on the front page
 
Or path integral quantization
Also what about measurement
 
@Slereah deformation?
 
3:13 PM
Measurement sounds p. fake
@0celo7 the weyl stuff
 
@Slereah I don’t touch that
 
With the Weyl star operator
 
@Slereah well, it’s inconsistent
 
what's wrong with weyl
 
All of the quantization techniques fail somehow
It’s a Theorem in Hall
 
3:14 PM
o
I guess I'll see it later
 
They fail for cubic terms
 
a lot of the measurement stuff sounds p. handwavy
 
Maybe not path integrals.
Well definitely fails though
 
Cubic terms doesn't sound very bad
 
*Weyl
 
3:15 PM
Not a lot of cubic potentials
 
If you like this stuff you need to check out Reed and Simon later
 
probably, but it's like
800 pages
Also I think "like" this stuff might be a bit of an overstatement
I like sunny days and ice cream
 
These questions are imporant for us PDEers too
How to represent differential operators is a big question
 
Hey, Vsauce Michael here. What is random geometry?
 
No clue
@BalarkaSen it’s actually “Hey Vsauce, Michael here”
He is talking TO Vsauce
 
3:19 PM
It's a random shape
Is it a square???
A triangle???
 
That's the meme. It's memified to imply his first name is Vsauce and last name is Michael
 
A rhombus???
Does Hall talk about quantum probability, btw
Since it's not technically Kolmogorov probability
 
I don’t think he does
Do I even want to know the difference
 
I think there's like one different axiom
4
Q: Probability and Quantum mechanics

DiegoSPI don't quite understand how the probability language of sample spaces, $\sigma-$algebra, random variables, etc, fit into the quantum mechanics' formalism. To wit, we usually say that an observable is a linear operator in a Hilbert space, and afterwards we define the "expected value" of this o...

Not 100% sure what's an example where the two differ, though
"Quantum probability theory is a generalization of probability theory in which random variables are not assumed to commute."
how do random variables commute
i do not know
though apparently it's related to the changing of probability theory into algebras thing
 
3:55 PM
@PrathyushPoduval 10/10 death metal album cover on profile pic
 
@BalarkaSen Thanks! It's what came to my mind when I took the pic :P
Whats up with your profile pic
you have a wierd hat over there
 
weird hat? it's my finest communist hat
 
Seriously though, wtf is that?
 
Top hat is the most capitalist hat, @BalarkaSen
you capitalist swine
 
GULAG
 
4:01 PM
I demand your immediate self critic
descriptions of self-criticism in communist china are quite amusing
 
Anonymous
@BalarkaSen Are you around?
 
@Blue Call him a capitalist, and he'll come in an instant
 
@Blue Yep
 
Anonymous
@BalarkaSen Could you please come over to this room for a while. I have a few statistics questions
 
4:21 PM
@Slereah did you get ghost recon wildlands?
 
4:39 PM
@Slereah let's read RS Vol 2 Section IX.7
 
@0celo7 I do not know what that is
 
also IX.8
I want to know the Wightman axioms
 
Maybe I'll eat dinner first
Imma hungry
Hm, where did I put RS
I'll just redownload it
 
5:09 PM
@Slereah Theorem IX.28 is interesting
basically just Sobolev but still
 
What's $H_0$, the free Hamiltonian?
 
yeah
 
5:26 PM
they're using $\lambda$ for the Fourier space variable
odd choice
 
5:39 PM
@Slereah but you can see the importance of domain choices
this stuff is important later on too
 
Well I'm reading like
Section 1
So Theorem 28 will have to wait
 
maybe finish Hall first
then go to Reed and Simon
 
Also this week end I'm doing some electronics
gotta give a gift for secret santa and my recipient is an old engineer dude who likes electronics
I'm gonna give him some spare Arduino and decorate with with LEDs and a speaker for Christmas theme
 
5:52 PM
Hi, everybody.
@knzhou You can see how it's set up in the git repo.
 
hello...
I'm sure someone's linked this before but...
 
Hahahahaha
This is by far my favorite:
Sep 2 '16 at 6:34, by DanielSank
Hey everybody, it's soapbox time:
 
hah
(I wish I understood what's going on there)
 
vzn
@DanielSank any reaction to the new silicon qbit news...?
 
signal processing SE (very specific? or no...)
Ahh classic
your answer is "engineering textbook correct"
 
5:58 PM
@CooperCape What do you not understand?
 
@DanielSank Oh no in the answer linked below....
As in
the one linekd under the link you posted back to 2016
(I really didn't specify)
 
The answer about Fourier transform of periodic signal?
 
Yeah
 
@vzn What news?
@CooperCape Ok, well I'm happy to help you understand.
This is one of my favorite topics.
 
Nah I gotta have dinner
Haven't started anything on fourier things
 
5:59 PM
Ok, well, if you're interested some time, I'll be happy to help.
Fourier transforms are very easy to understand if you first understand some basic things about linear algebra.
 

« first day (2598 days earlier)      last day (2330 days later) »