« first day (546 days earlier)      last day (2375 days later) » 

02:20
@sammygerbil I understood now thank you!
 
6 hours later…
08:04
@JohnRennie Are you there
@Abcd morning
@JohnRennie magnetic force on a current carrying loop in magnetic field is 0.
Then how can it have potential energy $-\vec{\mu} \cdot \vec{ B}$
@JohnRennie Hmm, I think that energy is associated with torque coz torque is non zero.
Ah, yes, that's the dipole energy
$\vec\mu$ is presumably the dipole moment
yes\
08:28
@JohnRennie Why have we taken $\cos \theta = 1$ in this derivation, line 7
In the first integral, what are you integrating on the right hand side? I can't make out what the symbol is.
@JohnRennie $$dW = \int \vec{\tau}. d\vec{\theta}$$
What is $\tau$?
external torque
Ah
You mean here, where the $\cos\theta$ disappears?
I assume that's because we are rotating the dipole about an axis normal to it, so $\theta = \pi/2$
No, wait
08:38
@JohnRennie yes
Ah, they are treating $\theta$ as an vector with the direction along the axis of rotation i.e. the axis that the angular velocity would have. So the torque and angle directions are parallel so $\theta = 0$ hence $\cos\theta=1$
@JohnRennie Oh thanks.
@JohnRennie Magnetic field energy outside a solenoid is 0 because net field (one above the solenoid and other below it) is 0 ?
Is the magnetic field energy outside a solenoid zero?
i dont know.
9
Q: fraction of magnetic energy stored outside a solenoid

Jason SIf I have a long solenoid, e.g. length $l$ and radius $r$ with $l = kr$, where k >> 1, with a nonpermeable (e.g. air) core, how much of the magnetic energy is stored outside as compared to inside? If I go by the Wikipedia article on solenoids, $B = \frac{\mu Ni}{l} \to H = \frac{Ni}{l}$ inside t...

According to that the magnetic field energy outside the solenoid is never zero, but in the limit of $L \to \infty$ the ratio of the energy outside to the energy inside tends to zero.
08:51
@JohnRennie In the previous derivation why have they taken $\theta = 90^\circ$ as 0 potential energy reference?
@Abcd Taking $\theta = 90º$ means the energy function is nicely symmetric i.e. $U(0) = -U(\pi)$ and I'd guess that's why it has been done.
But of course you can take the zero of the PE anywhere you want.
@JohnRennie But for $\theta= 90^\circ$ potential energy is maximum as torque is maximum
But 0 is not the maximum that $\vec{\mu}.\vec{B}$
Remember that PE is the integral of the torque
It isn't maximised where the torque is maximised.
oh
@JohnRennie Is there any reason/logic (not symmetry) for it to be maximum when theta = pi?
Since you get the torque by differentiating the PE the maxima/minima of the PE are where the torque is zero.
I'm not sure what other reason you need. It's like asking why the PE is a maximum at the top of a hill ...
To increase $\theta$ from zero to $\pi$ takes work. Then as you increase the angle from $\pi$ to $2\pi$ you get work back.
09:10
@JohnRennie Why have they defined: $\vec H = \dfrac{\vec B}{\mu_o}- \vec I$
I've never really understood the difference between $\vec H$ and $\vec B$
11 hours ago, by Abcd
user image
@JohnRennie Please see this then.
Ah right. When you have $\mu_r \ne 1$ you use $H$ to mean the bit of the field not due to the polarisation of the material i.e. $H = B/\mu_0$.
No, wait ...
$H = B/\mu_0 - M$ where $M$ is the field due to the magnetisation of the material.
So in your original equation presumably $\vec I$ is the field due to the magnetisation of the medium.
@JohnRennie I just dont understand what this equation is. What is its significance? How is it defined?
Where did you see it? What's the context?
09:18
@JohnRennie I saw it in my book only. But the explanation was vague$^\infty$
The book didnt even properly explain what $\vec M$ is.
In a vacuum you get $B = \mu_0 H$ - so far so good.
no.
What is H?
It's just the magnetic field with the factor of $\mu_0$ taken out.
@IceInkberry @AvnishKabaj @Jasmine Did you all study Maxwell's Law of induction (induced magnetic fields) and do questions on it like the magnetic field inside a capacitor being charged?
@JohnRennie Whats the purpose of it?
In a vacuum $H$ and $B$ differ only by a constant factor so there's no need to use $H$.
But in a magnetic medium there are two fields present:
1. the external field applied to the medium
2. the internal field due to the magnetisation of the medium
09:22
yes sure
then?
For example in an iron transformer core the external field would be the field due to the current in the windings,
while the internal field would be due to the magnetisation of the core.
In that case you divide the total field into two parts. One is the external field and the other is the magnetisation field.
And $H$ is the external field.
So the total field would be something like: $\vec B = \mu_0 \vec H + \vec M$
@JohnRennie M??
$\vec M$ is the field due to the magnetisation of the medium
Oh okay.
Then?
That's all there is to it.
09:28
@JohnRennie Please relate this to the question.
If the coil didn't have the magnetic material in the middle then the field inside it would just be the usual $\mu_0 N I/L$
With the core the field is $\mu NI/L$ and we can split this into $B = \mu_0 NI/L + (\mu-\mu_0)NI/L$
So from above we get $H = \mu_0 NI/L$ and $M = (\mu-\mu_0)NI/L$
Length. I'm using $N$ for the total number of turns so the number of turns per unit length is $n = N/L$
To be honest I don't really understand what the question is asking.
@JohnRennie Electric field is increasing. How did he get the direction of induced magnetic field?
What is that diagram?
@JohnRennie Any idea what's the use of $\mu$ in the question?
@Abcd if you put (for example) an iron core into a solenoid you increase the field by a factor of $\mu/\mu_0$. That's why you're told what $\mu$ is.
I wonder if the question means $\mu_r = 1400$. That would make more sense.
09:43
@Abcd yes
@AvnishKabaj When?
@JohnRennie Please see for more context^^^
@Abcd while studying emi
Like 3 weeks ago
@JohnRennie I am asking that electric field is increasing so how did he determine the direction of induced magnetic field
@AvnishKabaj is it in syllabus. (please see carefully that I am talking about Induced magnetic fields)
@Abcd that comes from Maxwell's equations.
@JohnRennie That's just: $$\int_C B. ds = \mu_o\epsilon_o \dfrac{d\phi_E}{dt}$$
09:45
@Abcd ¯\_(ツ)_/¯
Curl of B is proportional to $d\vec E/dt$
@JohnRennie hmm so?
How did he get that direction
Assuming the current is zero $$\nabla \times \mathbf B = \mu_0\epsilon_0 \frac{d\vec E}{dt} $$
\nabla
It's the vector $(d/dx, d/dy, d/dz)$
@JohnRennie I dont know it.
And $\times$ is the cross product.
09:48
@AvnishKabaj do you know how to find the direction of induced magnetic field.
$\nabla \times$ is the curl of the vector it's operating on.
@JohnRennie Please explain in some way like Lenz's law
Qualitative treatment.
I don't think it can be explained in any more simple way ...
Anonymous
@Abcd Qualitatively curl describes the manner in which a vector field (in this case the magnetic field) rotates at a certain point
@Blue I want to know how to determine the direction of induced magnetic field using elementary procedures like Lenz's law
Anonymous
09:51
The direction of rotation is same as the direction of change of $\vec{E}$
@Blue Please dont explain that.
Not in syllabus. And I have never used it.
Use the right hand screw rule
@JohnRennie how?
I see that the direction of induced magnetic field should support the change in flux
@JohnRennie I didnt mean that "how"
I meant how is it applicable here
09:53
The thumb points in the direction of $d\vec E/dt$ and the fingers show the direction of the field.
Anonymous
@Abcd I'm trying to explain how you can determine the direction of induced magnetic field using Maxwell's equation. If you don't want to know it, fine. But then the only other alternative left to you is memorization.
43 secs ago, by Abcd
I see that the direction of induced magnetic field should support the change in flux
I'm not sure that helps
Anonymous
There are of course tons of tricks to memorize it which you'll find in textbooks
@JohnRennie Can this line of thought be extended to find the direction^
09:53
Wait no I haven't done magnetic
Field
Why are you studying out of syllabus stuff
It's a waste of time
@AvnishKabaj I thought its in syllabus
Thats why I asked you
I thought you were saying electric Field
My bad
Anonymous
Eh, they're complementary
@AvnishKabaj Btw displacement current and all is there in the chapter EM waves. '
1 min ago, by Abcd
@JohnRennie Can this line of thought be extended to find the direction^
@JohnRennie ^^
No, or at least I don't see how.
09:57
Okay, Thanks for helping.
I will ask this part on main.
Anonymous
10:07
@Abcd Dude, if you were a little more patient then the direction of the magnetic field would pretty intuitive from part (b) of the image you posted. You'd just need to keep the two Maxwell equations in mind in order to convince yourself that it's true but that's not necessary once you build the intuition.
Anonymous
Anyhow, I don't feel like helping anymore.
10:25
@Abcd hi
@JohnRennie Why does Blue say that the direction is pretty intuitive from diagram b?
I was basically looking for an explanation using the "support the change" part.
@Abcd I suspect he just means you get used to what direction the field rotates in from experience. I can't see any reason why it's intuitive other than you've done it before.
Okay.
@Abcd you could argue that the changing field has the same effect as a current in the same direction ...
In Maxwell's equations that is the case. The full equation is:
$$\nabla \times \mathbf B = \mu_0\left( \vec J + \epsilon_0 \frac{d\vec E}{dt} \right) $$
So a current and a changing field in the same direction induce the same field. You can imagine an infinite wire with current flowing in the direction of the changing field.
Anonymous
@Abcd I don't know what the principle is, but we surely didn't study anything under the name of Maxwell's law of induction.
10:38
I have to go now. I'll be around for a bit in a few hours, then again tomorrow morning.
 
2 hours later…
12:56
@Abcd no
 
2 hours later…
15:23
@JohnRennie Are you there?
@Abcd hi
@JohnRennie Please let me know the error in my attempt.
3 mins ago, by Abcd
@JohnRennie Please let me know the error in my attempt.
@JohnRennie Thats the coordinate axis in the first diagram. Also, initially left end of the log was kept at (0,0).
Hmm, calculating the centre of mass is the correct way to do the problem ...
I would take the origin to be at the centre of the plank, then $mx$ is always zero for the plank. In that case the position of the COM is just $mx/(M+m)$ where $x$ is the diatsnce of the man from the centre.
@JohnRennie Not getting the right answer :((
@JohnRennie But my coordinate axis should work too.
15:40
Hmm, I get $mx/(M+m)$ for (a) and $2mx/(M+m)$ for (b). What answer is given?
@JohnRennie What is your x?
Oops sorry, $x=L/2$
@JohnRennie your answer's correct.
2 mins ago, by Abcd
@JohnRennie But my coordinate axis should work too.
I don't understand your method ...
@JohnRennie Can you see my coordinate axis at the top left corner?
15:43
No
You're measuring the distances from the end of the rod?
No see:
@JohnRennie Can you now see my coordinate axes?
@JohnRennie Now?
Are you calculating the position of the COM using the usual expression: $\frac{1}{M} \Sigma mx_i$
First please tell me if you can see my axes :( @JohnRennie
15:46
I can see the red lines, but what I can't see is what they are intended to mean.
Okay, let me show more clear diagram
@JohnRennie Arrow denotes man.
@JohnRennie x is distance of man from origin.
y is the distance that the log moves behind
@JohnRennie Now is my diagram clear so that I can elaborate more?
OK I think I see what you're doing. The origin is the point where the end of the plank is initially. As the man walks right the plank moves left
@JohnRennie ya exactly
18 mins ago, by Abcd
user image
And $x$ is the distance to the centre of mass.
@JohnRennie Please see if the rest of the steps make sense
@JohnRennie Capital $X$
Small x is distance of man from origin
15:53
OK
When the man is halfway (part a) then the distance to both the man and the plank COM is just $x$ ...
@JohnRennie ??
@JohnRennie I am deriving for general situation
For part a, isnt x+y = L/2 ???
To be honest I see no benefit in pursuing this
Never mind Then.

« first day (546 days earlier)      last day (2375 days later) »