« first day (2780 days earlier)   

4:28 AM
@NOTEBook Hi :-)
@PinkAura Hi :-)
4:39 AM
@JohnRennie hi sir
what do we mean by current through x ray tube?
is it the current in the circuit through which thermionic emission occurs, or we are just calling the accelerated electrons that are striking the metal target to be current ?
I would guess it means beam current i.e. the flow of electrons to the target.
ohh i see
The beam current is an important factor because the X-ray intensity is proportional to the beam current.
yes , is it also proportional to filament current?
No, or at least I don't think so. All the filament current does is heat the filament. I suppose there is an effect since the thermionic emission is probably related to filament temperature, but I suspect you can't change the filament temperature very far from the optimal temperature.
Either it will stop emitting thermionic electrons or it will burn out.
4:47 AM
@JohnRennie there was a past jee advanced question in which the right option does seem to say that,ie, it is proportional?
Hmm, OK, go with whatever answer the JEE expects I guess.
There obviously is an effect of filament current since the filament current controls the temperature, but I'm surprised it's proportional to the filament current.
i mean not proportional to
but it does increase with increase in filament current
Ah, yes, that makes sense.
5:04 AM
what speed are they talking about? the speed corresponding to maximum energy transferred or to Kalpha emission?
@JohnRennie
It doesn't matter. The speed of the X-ray is always just 𝑐.
@JohnRennie ohh yes
i just got it
thanks
You're welcome :-)
it was a trick question
5:24 AM
Hi
@JohnRennie I just wanted to ask that since there are 3 orbitals in p subshell can they have any random magnetic quantum number.... like Px can be any between -1,0 or 1 or any specific out of these three?
Yes, for an isolated atom when we distinguish between px, py and pz we are just randomly choosing axes.
So Px can have any out of the three?
e.g. in an isolated boron atom the outermost electron can be in any of the three p orbitals and we can call that orbital whatever we want.
oh ok
If we have some external factor that picks out a direction, e.g. if there is an external magnetic field, then it's traditional to call the p orbital that lines up with the field pz.
But it's just a convention. There is nothing special about "z".
5:31 AM
I see
6:03 AM
@JohnRennie can doppler effect change frequency of photons?
@PinkAura Yes
Photons are more complicated things than you think. They are not little particles of light.
A light beam doesn't consist of photons in the same way an electron beam consists of electrons.
It's more appropriate to think of a light beam as a wave, and not to try and imagine it as photons.
6:24 AM
@JohnRennie i mean so suppose we need to excite an electron of hydrogen atom to infinity, what energy do we need ? hv? what's v here?
It's the Greek letter nu and stands for frequency.
You'll sometimes see the photon energy written as E = hf
@JohnRennie yes i know this but how is v/f affected by doppler effect?
i mean we can calculate it from 13.6 = hv, but then v is a fixed value, isn't it?
ill be honest, i know doppler effect only for sound waves
The EM wave really is just a wave. Where the photon comes in is that if the wave has a frequency f then it can only exchange energy with something else in units of ΔE = hf. And those discrete transfers of energy are what we mean by a photon.
So if you shine light at a hydrogen atom that light can only transfer energy to the atom in units of hf.
yes but that hf is frame dependent?
Yes, it is.
6:29 AM
so in what frame do we usually work it out?
lab frame?
You can choose whatever frame is convenient. If you're trying to excite a hydrogen atom then you would use the rest frame of the hydrogen atom.
i see
there's one more doubt
Typically that would be the lab frame since the hydrogen atom is probably at rest relative to the lab.
suppose we want to excite an electron of a hydrogen atom by bombarding it with a neutron or something, now if the energy is less than 10.2eV of neutron, the collision would be 100 per cent elastic?
Correct
6:33 AM
but then why do we say that some energy is lost due to collisions , usually? like when studying about continuous x-rays one of the factor indeed is due to acceleration of electron (as you explained it ), but my teacher also said that it is lost due to collision?
what do we actually mean by it, energy lost due to collisions?
Both a hydrogen atom and a neutron are neutral particles. If the neutron bounces off the atom it gets accelerated, but neutral particles don't do anything special when they are accelerated.
But as we discussed a few days back, if you accelerate a charged particle it will give off a burst of EM radiation.
@JohnRennie ohh so it just the EM radiation due to acceleration of charged particles?
i see, thank you so much....
is heat also a part of em radiation, anyway?
Yes, heat is just infrared radiation i.e. wavelengths of a few microns or longer.
Well, radiant heat is.
If you're asking about the energy held in a hot object that's a bit different.
6:40 AM
@JohnRennie that's a part of thermodynamics, so i wouldn't want to go deep into that yet, i was studying modern physics currently
OK :-)
7:23 AM
@JohnRennie Hi
Hi :-)
In wavefunction equation for orbitals
There is a angular part
So in case of say 2Px orbital we know that there is a nodal plane
Is it because we get value of psi 0 for an angle perpendicular to X axis independent of R?
Whenever we have a system that is spherically symmetric the wavefunction will split into a product of two parts:
Ψ = R(r) Y(θ, φ)
This is a result of the symmetry and doesn't depend on the exact details of the system. It always happens for spherical symmetry.
The R function depends on 𝑛 and 𝓁 so it's different for 1s, 2s, 2p, etc but it doesn't depend on 𝑚 so all three p orbitals share the same R(r) function.
The Y(θ, φ) depends on 𝓁 and 𝑚 so it's different for s, px, py, px, etc
The nodal plane comes from the Y(θ, φ) function.
For the 2pz orbital Y(θ, φ) = 0 when θ = 90° i.e. in the xy plane.
7:32 AM
yes
So for θ = 90° it doesn't matter what the values of 𝑟 and φ are because we always have Y = 0 so:
Ψ = R(r) × 0
In fact for the 2p orbitals R(r) is non-zero everywhere except at the origin.
That is why it doesn't have any radial nodes,right?
7:36 AM
The equation help me understood so many concepts i was struggling with
Thanks
You're welcome :-)
Wait
In many cases Psi is 0 at zero and infinite R but they are not called nodes right?
I mean it is just how we mention nodes?
For a p orbital there is a node at r = 0.
But it's a nodal point not a nodal surface and isn't very interesting.
Oh i didn't notice that
p, d, etc orbitals have nodal planes, while s orbitals have nodal surfaces that are spheres.
7:45 AM
yes
THank you
I guess really we should say nodal plane not node for the p orbitals but ... well ... people are lazy sometimes :-)

« first day (2780 days earlier)