@JohnRennie This is my question:we know that magnetic field does no work on a charge moving with constant velocity.So the speed of the particle remains constant.But its velocity vector changes.That means it is accelerating.In this case,since the charge is undergoing an acceleration would it emit EMW?
@ayc yes. This type of radiation is known as Bremsstrahlung or synchrotron radiation. For example accelerators like the LHC emit this type of radiation when they use magnetic fields to make particles go in a circle.
Now, in the COM frame the total momentum is zero, so the two atoms can come in with equal and opposite speeds, use all their KE to ionise one of the atoms and come to a stop. This conserves momentum so it is allowed. So in the COM frame the minimum total KE is 13.6eV.
That means both atoms have a KE of 6.8eV, and we've just worked out that in the lab frame the KE of the incoming atom is four times greater i.e. 27.2eV.
The initial KE is 27.2eV. Half of this, 13.6eV, is used to ionise the atom, and the remaining 13.6eV goes into the KE of the atoms after the collision.
Energy is always conserved, so if energy "disappears" in a collision then that energy must be going somewhere. The question is where can the energy be going?
In the case of something colliding with a nucleus the only place energy can be going is into exciting the nucleus.
Don't confuse atomic collisions, like the problem we've just done, with nuclear collisions. Excitations of nuclei happen at energies of many MeV while for atoms it's at most a few keV for the innermost electrons in heavy atoms.
@harambe yes. An elastic collision is one in which the total final KE is equal to the total initial KE. If some KE gets used up in exciting or ionising atoms then by definition that collision is inelastic.
A partially inelastic collision is one in which some but not all of the KE is used to excite the atom. A completely inelastic collision is one in which all of the KE is used in exciting the stom.
@JohnRennie in. Photo electric experiment, the electrons that are ejected due to incident light gain kinetic energy because of incident light. Does this mean all electrons near the surface come out with kinetic energy equal to the energy provided by incident light on metal or can the electrons still lose energy even if itnis near the surface
For a photoelectron to be ejected from the surface the initial electron has to collide with something and rebound back towards the surface. Or it might transfer its energy to a different electron that then escapes the surface.
This is a rather improbable event, and in fact the vast majority of the initial photoelectrons never escape. Only about one in a million, or at best 1 in 100,000, photons actually produces a photoelectron from the surface.
By free electrons I assume you mean the electrons in the conduction band, and yes for visible light all the photoelectrons come from the conduction electrons.
But my previous statement still holds. When a photon transfers energy to a conduction electron conservation of momentum means that conduction electron starts moving in the same direction as the photon.
Anyhow, the collisions involved in making the electron bounce back towards the surface are partially elastic to some extent. That means some or all of the energy of the photon can be lost in those collisions.
The result is that the photoelectrons that come from the surface have a range of kinetic energies from a maximum of $h\nu - \phi$ right down to zero.
If we take the PE outside the metal to be zero (as usual) then the topmost electrons in the metal lie at an energy of $-\phi$. That is is always costs an energy $\phi$ to remove an electron even if we don't give the electron any KE at all. You can think of $\phi$ as being the ionisation energy of the metal.
@JohnRennie even if energy of photon is greater than work function, what if by the time it reaches the surface electron, it's energy gets reduced below work function due to succesive collisions with other electrons
@harambe I think, but don't know for sure, that the most probably scattering event for the photon is to transfer all its energy to an electron in one go. So as a general rule photons don't get partially scattered and lose a bit of energy before their final collision.
Remember that as long as the frequency is above the threshold one photon = one photoelectron. If you change the frequency but keep the number of photons constant then the number of photoelectrons will be constant.
NB in most PE experiments the current just measures the number of photoelectrons per second. The current is not dependent on the photoelectron energy.
If you keep the intensity constant then the number of photons per second decreases as we increase the frequency. This is simply because each photon has more energy, $hf$, so for a fixed energy higher $f$ means fewer photons.
That's why graph C is a bit misleading. The obvious way to do the experiment would be to keep the intensity constant as you increase the frequency. If you do that then the current will be proportional to 1/f.
The graph must be keeping the number of photons per second per unit area constant i.e. it is increasing the intensity as the frequency is increased.
In one second a photon travels $c$ metres, so in one second the contents of a volume 1m x 1m x c metres of photons hit every square metre on the Earth. Yes?
And only the photons inside that box can hit the Earth in the next second, because any photon farther away than $c$ metres will take more than a second to reach the Earth.
In part (a) you calculated the number of photons per second per square metre hitting the Earth. Call the number $N$. All these $N$ photons are contained in a box of volume 1 x 1 x $c$, so the number density (number of photons per cubic metre) is $N/c$.
I wasn't counting all the photons in transit between the Sun and the Earth. I was only counting all the photons in a box of height 1 light second above the Earth.
I sure it's not really necessary to say, but it is important to read the question carefully. In the exam you don't have someone like me around to correct you.
We are asked to find the total number of photons per second coming from the Sun. So if we consider a surface around the Sun with the Sun at the centre we just just have to work out how many photons per second pass through this surface.
And the total number of photons per second passing through the surface will be the number of photons per square metre at the surface times the area of the surface.
Like that, where I've just drawn some random surface with the Sun in the middle.
(the Sun is the yellow circle)
But calculating the area and the photon intensity for a random surface like that is going to complicated. It would be far easier if it was a more symmetrical surface ...
Yes, like a sphere. Maybe a sphere with a radius equal to the Sun-Earth distance since we have already calculated the photon intensity at the Sun-Earth distance ...
@harambe Cool :-) The idea is simple when you've been introduced to it. The same technique is used extensively in electrostatics where we call the surface a Gaussian surface.
Light, or indeed any EM wave, is an oscillating electric field. So when the question talks about the electric field going to zero this is just a complicated way of telling you the frequency of the light.
If you're wondering about wave particle duality then it's a surprisingly simple idea but it requires you to have a basic grasp of quantum field theory.
@harambe it's usually an option that the mathematically inclined students might want to in their final year of a degree. QFT is really hard to understand rigorously. The maths involved is super scary. However it's not too hard to get a rough idea of what is going on.
No, the Schrodinger equation is non-relativistic quantum mechanics and it's actually not that hard. Most JEE students will have enough maths to be able to handle it.
Quantum field theory is a whole new level of complexity!
If you did physics at university you would study the Schrodinger equation as a first year course.
@harambe even basic QM involves some ideas that are hard to get your head round. The maths isn't that hard but the concepts are.
Actually the same is true of special relativity. The maths is just basic calculus and JEE students will know this. But the ideas involved are very ... erm ... odd! :-)
First doubt, when Pn junction diode is reverse biased, the voltage is along the direction of electric field of the depletion region. Then why does the 'voltage drop across the depletion region'?
I have a small doubt in errors and measurements. The statement says:
For example, in the experiment on finding the focal length of a convex lens, the object lens(u) is found by subtracting the positions of the object needle and the lens. If the optical bench has a least count of 1 mm, the error in each position will be 0.5 mm. So, the error in the value of u will be 1 mm. The doubt I have is, how is error in each position 0.5 mm? Isn't the error directly the least count(unless otherwise mentioned). So, 1 mm + 1 mm = 2 mm for (u).
I have this question, I have a laser light run by some solar cell, but I now I focus the parallel beam onto a parabolic reflector which converges the light rays to a very small point, and now I can put an object at that focus and heat it to whatever temperature I can by reducing the area, ultimately greater than that of sun, the against SLT.
If you use complicated routes redefining "focusing" towards generating the temperature, yes.
Physicists at CERN's Large Hadron Collider have broken a record by achieving the hottest man-made temperatures ever - 100,000 times hotter than the interior of the Sun.
Scientists there collided...
As your object heats up it starts emitting light. The same lenses that focussed the light from the Sun (or whatever) send the light from the object back to the Sun. The end result is that the fraction of light from the Sun that goes into heating the object decreases as the object gets hotter.
@sammygerbil A parallel beam of sodium light of wavelength $5890 $ A is incident on a thin glass plate of $\mu = 1.5$ such that angle of refraction is $60^\circ$. The smallest thickness of the plate which will make it dark by reflection is?
@JohnRennie Do you know about resolving power of optical instruments?
Sun rays are focused with a lens of diameter d and focal length f to the black side of a thin plate. The one side of the plate is perfectly black and the other side is perfectly white. Angular diameter of the sun is aloha and it's intensity on the surface of the earth is I. I using thermodynamic arguments find the maximal focal length-to-diameter ratio of a lens.
I did this one by finding the image diameter and equating the images area into t^4 to the power falling on it and the temperature of it equalling the sun
@Abcd (You could change the angle of refraction to something physically possible, and see if you can solve the problem then. You will not be able to match the answer given, but you can still learn from the problem.)
@sammygerbil His solution on the bottom right corner, you can see $2\mu x = \lambda$ stuff there.
@sammygerbil I think I can see his mistake, he is considering it normal incidence on the glass surface, isn't he? But the path difference would change for $60^\circ$ refraction angle
@sammygerbil We aren't supposed to get the solutions checked or show them to anyone. We just have to mark the right answer and move ahead in online mode. And bubble the circle in offline - OMR mode... That's why tricks and stuff work and help a lot
@sammygerbil Have I spotted his mistake correctly?
I am attempting to solve this question but I feel that the question may be ill defined. The question is in two images, the first image and second image. I have tried many attemps at this but nothing seems to make sense. The question seems to be talking about entering an orbit starting from the su...
@john Re: why the question was closed. The main site is not a Problem Solving Site. It is intended for conceptual questions only (although algebraic calculation questions sometimes get through if they are interesting). You failed to identify a conceptual difficulty.
@Abcd True, the issue of why the question was put on hold would be better in the h-bar. But I think @john has posted here to get an answer to the question which was closed. ie What (if anything) is wrong with his calculation?
@Abcd Your benchmate has not used normal incidence in his calculation. The rays which are reflected from the upper and lower interfaces are parallel and interfere destructively if they are in anti-phase. There is a phase difference due to the different optical path lengths, and there is a phase change on reflection from the upper surface (but not the lower).
However, for the same reason that the angle of refraction cannot be 60 degrees, the ray which is reflected from the upper surface cannot emerge from the flat plate - it is incident at greater than critical angle, so it suffers total internal reflection at the upper surface as well as at the lower surface.
Correction : You are right. He has used normal incidence.
Suppose the light is incident at angle $i$ and refracted at angle $r$. Then $\sin i =n\sin r$.
Suppose the thickness is $t$ and the distance between points at which one ray enters and emerges from the plate (after reflection from the bottom face) is $d$. Then $2t=x\cos r$ and $d=x\sin r$ where $x$ is the path length of the ray in the glass plate.
@sammygerbil The amplitude of electric field of an EM wave travelling along z axis is 2 V /m. The average magnetic field is: A) 13.29 * 10^-12 B) 8.86 * 10 ^-12 C) 17.72 * 10^-12 D) 4.43 * 10^{-12}
@sammygerbil am getting C using $\dfrac{1}{2}\epsilon_o E^2$