Okay, so back to my original questions; which operators do I need to look out for that changes the range. Ooh.. I think I just answered my own question!
As soon as I apply some theorem or operator that changes the range/output of my statement(?), that's when I should use implication/equivalence to show that the application of the operator/theorem yields this new expression that is true?
@DanZimm It will in general only be true if $f$ is injective on a suitable subset of its domain (which relates to $a$ and $b$, of course). So it will hold at least if $f$ is injective, but otherwise it needn't.
@DanZimm Suppose that $a$ and $b$ take positive values, but are never equal. Take $f$ injective on positive inputs, constant on negative ones.
Since $a$ and $b$ do not "reach into" the region where $f$ is not injective, the sets will still be equal (and empty, but we didn't really use that fact).
I'm currently preparing to go into the final stage, finishing off the preliminary work and getting to the actual paper that's the subject of my thesis.
But presently I have to work on a hand-in assignment for a different course, Set Theory.
In mathematical analysis Fubini's theorem, named after Guido Fubini, is a result which gives conditions under which it is possible to compute a double integral using iterated integrals. As a consequence it allows the order of integration to be changed in iterated integrals.
Theorem statement
Suppose A and B are complete measure spaces. Suppose f(x,y) is A × B measurable. If
:\int_{A\times B} |f(x,y)|\,\text{d}(x,y)
where the integral is taken with respect to a product measure on the space over A × B, then
:\int_A\left(\int_B f(x,y)\,\text{d}y\right)\,\text...
@robjohn: May I ask you to remove the link above I attached. Will Jagy wanted me to do something and I did. That isn't need to be on anymore. Thanks and sorry for asking that.
@robjohn The text we are using is Stein and Shakarchi. You see, I can see that $g(x)$ is integrable once I know that $F(x,t)$ is on the whole of $[0,1]²$
@BenjaLim yes we can because the one on the right is finite, but if it weren't then neither would the one on the left, so we do know a priori that they are equal
We surely know that the cantorset is closed hence $[0,1]\setminus C$ is open. So you can write it as a countable union of distinct open intervalls. How does that work when there is a point of the complement between every two points of the cantorset ?
@DominicMichaelis They are precisely the intervals which you are omitting when you are creating the Cantor set. You omit 1 interval in the first step, 2 in the second, 4 in the third.
Countably many steps of the construction, finitely many intervals in each of them.
It would be so much better if the one of the owners put the link into the room description IMO
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