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21:00
(removed)
Rly?
Ok. Put the fun in ma hand, then.
Warning: Money may result in excessive greed!
@skullpatrol κρανίον
@Charlie patrol
@skullpatrol Yes!!!
21:05
:-)
I'm on FIRE.
@skullpatrol comes from greek, Kranion, in portuguese, it is Crânio :)
@JonasTeuwen your spine?
No, my head. It will explode - I'm out for a drink 8-).
21:07
Today is Friday.
I need to decide whether to do poker with the guys, or drinks with the ladies.
@Arkamis Why not both?
NOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOO
@skullpatrol I'm old; only energy for one or the other. I'll probably do poker, and let my fiancee talk wedding things with her friend.
@skullpatrol κρανίο περιπολία
@Arkamis poker sounds nicer
@Charlie Thanks :-D
@Arkamis But uh...
Oh, nvm.
@skullpatrol I can read greek
:D
21:12
@Charlie Cool.
@Charlie I have a "new" username.
@skullpatrol hehe which?
@Charlie κρανίοπεριπολία
@skullpatrol doesn't it sound nice???
Kranionperitolia
Perineum in greek, nice.
@Charlie Yes, I like it.
21:20
@κρανίοπεριπολία GREAT!
@Charlie Your "black swan" looks very nice :-D
@κρανίοπεριπολία Thank you!
I still haven't seen Black Swan...
@robjohn Why can the contour integration method not be used to find the value of $\int_0^\infty \frac{x^2}{e^x-1}\, dx$?
im bored :(
21:25
@Argon the singularity on the origin.
@Arkamis Removable, no?
@user58512 and your group theory :(?
I don't know offhand -- what's the Laurent expansion look like?
@Arkamis It's the same as White Swan, just darker ;-)
@skullpatrol With more Mila Kunis...
21:27
@Arkamis No need: $$\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{x^2}{e^x-1} = 0$$
@Arkamis she doesn't appear much
@Argon Good point -- I forgot about L'Hopitals rule, and it looked like too much work to compute otherwise on a friday afternoon ;)
hehe Fridays
why are there no fun questions for me to answer on the site
What is a fun question you would like?
21:29
@Argon Well then, if that singularity is removable, then the Laurent expansion has a zero coefficient on the -1 term
So the residue is zero
Right, so we can "ignore" it
i would only know if I see it :(
So the integral around any contour you draw will be zero.
Avoiding the poles at $2 \pi i n$ though
Hello guys.
21:32
hi
@Argon Yes but e^*x* only equals 1 at x=0
I would like to ask a question, if you were part of the chat yesterday, I asked a similar question.
@Arkamis Hm? What do you mean? $e^{2 \pi i } = 1$
21:33
Don't forget that when using a contour integral to evaluate a real integral, we want to cast the problem as a contour integral, but ultimately show that the other segments are irrelevant
If we have three numbers, 4.00, 3.20 and 1.95. Their sum is 9.15 in total.
Yes but you wrote $e^x-1$; I am assuming you're trying to evaluate a real-valued integral
Is it possible to find a multipler for each number separately, whose sum of multipliers doesn't exceeded the result of any of the results by multiplication of the numbers
@Arkamis Yes, but contours are in the complex plane, so $x$ is complex
no no no
The contour integral technique for real valued integrals is basically this:
21:35
@user2041143 Why?
huhu how are yo u
The real part is a non-closed segment, and the integral along that segment has some value. We want to treat this segment as part of a closed curve in the complex plane, so we can use contour integral techniques, like the residue theorem
I need to figure this out.
Math problem
@user2041143 math is boring
The key here is that when we close the curve, we can select a curve such that all the parts that we introduce in the complex plane cancel out in the contour integral
21:35
No, it's not..
Leaving only the contribution of the purely real segment
@Arkamis I know all this, I have done complex integrals before. But poles are not only real.
it sure looks it from the thing you posted
Everything is boring, if you're not doing it with love. :-)
$2 \pi i $ is a pole of $$\frac{x^2}{e^x-1}$$
21:36
Yes, but there is only one pole that you care about for the real integral
And $2\pi i$ is not a pole of $x^2/(e^x+1)$ because $x \neq 2\pi i$ for any $x \in \Bbb R$
It is not always zero, it depends on the poles within the contour
@DominicMichaelis good
21:37
Argon
it's a pole of the function when considered C -> C, but not when R -> R
the only point in the reals that sends your function to infinity is x=0
You're integrating over the reals. You can introduce curves in the complex plane, but only in such a way that they ultimately don't affect your computation of the real valued integral
The singularity in the reals is removable. The complex poles are not, and these must be considered.
Listen, please. You asked for the explanation
You are confusing me. Contours depend on the poles within it, not just real ones
21:39
Yes, of course, but you're missing a crucial part of contour integration
A really important one -- let me explain
$\int_{D \subset \Bbb R} f(x) dx = \int_\Gamma f(z) dz = \int_{D \subset \Bbb R} f(z) dz + \int_\gamma f(z) dz$ if $\int_\gamma f(z) dz = 0$
Go ahead
So if you introduce some curve such that $\int_\gamma f(z) dz \neq 0$, then you're not actually computing $\int_{D \subset \Bbb R} f(x) dx$
ok so your are saying: sum of residues = integral_{complex contour} = integral_{real line} + integral_{complex rest of path}
so integral_{real line} = residues - integral_{complex rest of path}?
Yes, basically. But that's not really how we want to use it
but unless the complex path integral part goes to zero or something (by R -> infinity) we are basically going to find this just as hard
21:42
What we really want is to select the "rest of path" denoted $\gamma$ such that the integral goes to 0
So, Argon, your poles on the imaginary axis will contribute to the contour integral, but only by way of the curve $\gamma$ that you introduce, and hence are not part of the real-valued integral
@Argon That's different -- you can't close the curve without including those poles
but if that's true then there will be no residues?
But from 0 to infinity you can draw a bunch of closed curves that completely avoid the poles
A real valued integral is not a contour integral.
21:44
You're missing the point
it is one but a trivial one
@Arkamis, if you make the complex contour so that its zero there wil be no poles ??
so why bother
@user58512 That's the point -- that's why you can't use contour integration to do this integral
I dont get it I thought the whole point was that there were interesting poles which evaluate to your integral
21:45
If we went from $-\infty$ to $\infty$ then we include poles
Infinitely many, in fact
And we can get an infinite sum
And that's something we know how to handle
@Arkamis So why can I use it to integrate $\int_0^\infty \frac{x}{e^x-1}\, dx$?
I did it yesterday
@Argon,
Yes?
$$\int_\gamma \frac{z}{e^z-1}\, dz$$
with $\gamma$ the rectangle $[0, R, R + i \pi, i \pi]$ was it?
That was it, and I let $R \to \infty$
I ended up with $$\int_0^\infty \frac{x}{e^x-1}\, dx + \int_0^\infty \frac{x}{e^x+1}\, dx = \zeta(2) +\frac{\zeta(2)}{2}= \frac{\pi^2}{4}$$
21:50
Over 4?
$$\int_0^R \frac{x}{e^x-1}\, dx + \int_0^{\pi} \frac{R + it}{e^R e^{it}-1}\, dt - \int_0^R \frac{x + i\pi}{e^{i \pi }e^x-1}\, dx - \int_0^{\pi} \frac{it}{e^{it}-1}\, dt$$
Wait, exp(x)+1 or minus 1
Both appeared.
see the 4 integrals?
Yes, that was it
21:51
@Argon, can we throw away the second one, becaue e^R is huge
Ok I see that's a + not an equals sign
@user58512 Yup, and leave the $i \pi$ in #3 because imaginary parts not needed
what about the 4th one? can we evaluate it explicitly
@user58512 I took the real part, then it was easy
what is the real part of the 4th integral?
21:53
@user58512 Note that #4 has no $i$ in the numerator, I think you wrote it wrong
@user58512 $\frac{x}{2}$
apparently it's $\pi \log(2)$
I think it should have i
are you sure it shouldn't?
@user58512 It squares: $$\int_a^b f(g(x))g'(x)\, dx$$
$g'(x) = i$
what :(
Sorry, I am rushing things here
the basic formula for a contour integral ;)
21:55
That part of the contour is parametrized by $iz$
let $\delta$ be the contour $[i\pi,0]$ then I think $$\int_\delta \frac{z}{e^z - 1} dz = - \int_0^\pi \frac{it}{e^{it} - 1} dt$$ is that wrong?
Square the $i$
can you just say that im wrong
In the mathematical field of complex analysis, contour integration is a method of evaluating certain integrals along paths in the complex plane. Contour integration is closely related to the calculus of residues, a methodology of complex analysis. One use for contour integrals is the evaluation of integrals along the real line that are not readily found by using only real variable methods. Contour integration methods include * direct integration of a complex-valued function along a curve in the complex plane (a contour) * application of the Cauchy integral formula * application of th...
Are we talking about $x^2$ or $x$?
21:56
If we have THREE numbers
a=4 b=3.2 c=1.95
Their sum is 9.15
Can we find THREE multipliers for those numbers m1,m2,m3 whose sum m1+m2+m3 is equal or smaller by multiplication of a*m1, b*m2 or c*m3
Note: you can't multiplicate a*m3.
this isn't working....
@Arkamis Yesterday I did $x$, and I don't know why it isn't working for $x^2$
Right, and I'm trying to work out why you got a result for $x$ with a curve that includes no poles ;)
@user58512 Do you know how to turn a contour integral into a regular one?
1 min ago, by user58512
let $\delta$ be the contour $[i\pi,0]$ then I think $$\int_\delta \frac{z}{e^z - 1} dz = - \int_0^\pi \frac{it}{e^{it} - 1} dt$$ is that wrong?
21:57
@Arkamis You mean why it does not equal 0?
Because for $z(t) = t(R+i\pi)$, $\frac{z}{e^z-1}$ has no poles.
$e^z+1$ would induce a pole with that curve.
@user58512 Yes :). Let $g(z) = iz$ be the parametrization of the contour and $f(x) = \frac{x}{e^x-1}$. Then $f(g(x))g'(x) = \frac{i^2 x}{e^{ix}-1}$
@Arkamis But the segment from $\pi i$ to $0$ contributes the $\frac{\pi^2}{4}$.
Yes, but shouldn't it be canceled out by the segment at $\Re z = R$? I don't know offhand -- haven't done the math, just expecting it to by symmetry.
The one from $R$ to $R + i \pi$ disappears, the other one does not.
Ok, hang on a second. I see what you're doing
Let me get this right
22:02
$$\int_\gamma \frac{z}{e^z-1}\, dz = \int_0^R \frac{x}{e^x-1}\, dx + \int_0^{\pi} \frac{iR - t}{e^R e^{it}-1}\, dt - \int_0^R \frac{x + i\pi}{e^{i \pi }e^x-1}\, dx + \int_0^{\pi} \frac{t}{e^{it}-1}\, dt$$
Earlier, you were computing $\int_0^\infty \left[\frac{x}{e^x-1} + \frac{x}{e^x+1}\right]\ dx$, right?
@user58512 Looks better
@Arkamis Noting that $\int_0^\infty \frac{x}{e^x-1}\, dx = \zeta(2)$ and $\int_0^\infty \frac{x}{e^x+1}\, dx = \frac{1}{2}\zeta(2)$, I used this method to find $\zeta(2) = \frac{\pi^2}{6}$
Right right
But here's the important thing
$$\Re \left(\int_0^{\pi} \frac{t}{e^{it}-1}\, dt \right) = -\frac{\pi^2}{4}$$
so $$\int_\gamma \frac{z}{e^z-1}\, dz = \int_0^R \frac{x}{e^x-1}\, dx + \int_0^R \frac{x}{e^x + 1}\, dx - \frac{\pi^2}{4}$$
and this is zero because all the singularities are removable?
Think of $f(x)$ as the sum of both of those parts, taken as a whole -- then, when you pop the contour into the complex plane, you get something that basically cancels out to leave just an integral along the real part. But that contour, applied individually to each term, doesn't necessarily disappear for each term. So you have to be careful.
22:06
that is wrong
Or rather, the same parts might not disappear
The point of doing contour integration to evaluate the real integral is to pop a curve into the complex plane, and then say, "well these complex components go away, leaving only the real segment"
what is the sum of residues of the integral?
@Arkamis Or, if you can turn it into a sum of integrals and/or residues that can be evaluated, you can solve for the integral you want.
user19161
@argon It's Friday for you!
@JacobBlack YAY! I pinged you
22:08
help :(
@Argon That's functionally the same thing ;)
But the point is -- if your curve doesn't go away, then you're not computing the real integral
@Arkamis Or sometimes, as I love, you can have a contour that gives the integral you want a bunch of times with different coefficients and solve for the integral. This is how I use contours to find $\int_{-\infty}^\infty$
@Argon, acan you help me
And then we also want to have path independence -- the contour integral depends only on its poles, not the curve
@Arkamis But why wouldn't they disappear when $x$ is squared, like before?
@user58512 With what?
22:10
So whenever we have a situation where you could pick two different curves, and get different results, that's bad.
4 mins ago, by user58512
and this is zero because all the singularities are removable?
What is the value of $\displaystyle\int_\gamma \frac{z}{e^z-1}\, dz $?
@user58512 $0$, because the removable singularities have $0$ as the coefficient of the $z^{-1}$ term of the series.
i.e. the residue there is $0$
when ever e^{z} = 1
so thats z = 0, 2pi, ..... oh...
so there's only one pole
in our rectangle
ok that is EXCELLENT!!!!!!!!
@user58512 $0$ is the only removable one, the others aren't. But the rectangle avoids all :)
This is by all means the fastest solution of the Basel problem I have ever seen
user19161
22:13
@user58512 WOW, so many !
@user58512 There is anther cool complex way noting that $$\sum_{n=-\infty}^\infty f(n) = \sum \text{Residues of }\pi \cot (\pi z)f(z) \text{ at poles of }f$$
@Argon What happens to the numerator in the neighborhood of $z = 2\pi i k$?
When you have $x^2$
@Arkamis Removable at $z=0$ but poles elsewhere
Right
So let's say you have a curve that includes those poles
What's the residue there?
Right
They are simple poles
So the easiest way is to differentiate the bottom
$(2 \pi i k)^2$ I think
22:18
Right, so you get $z^2/1$
Yes, which is real valued.
Right, yes
So what happens if you take a contour that includes one of the poles?
@Arkamis Then the whole integral equals $2 \pi i $ times that residue
Right
Now what happens when you take a contour that includes two of the poles?
(I'm getting somewhere here, I promise)
Hello
22:22
You get a different result
I have a question. Can an eigenvector be equal to zero ?
@Arkamis $2 \pi i \left(\sum \text{Residues in contour}\right)$
@Argon I know that
But we know that the residue is $-(2\pi k)^2$
So if our curve includes the pole at $k=1$, then our sum of residues is $-(2\pi)^2$.
$(2 \pi i k)^2$, no?
@Arkamis Yes
Then, if we take a curve that includes both poles at $k=1$ and $k=2$, then our sum of residues becomes
$-(2\pi)^2-(4\pi)^2$
And so on and so on.
So different curves lead to different values. HOWEVER
22:25
Anyone ?
Let's look at your previous function: $$f(x) = \frac{x}{e^x-1}+\frac{x}{e^x+1}$$
@Argon why do you say it can't be done?
There are poles at $2\pi i k$ just like before
@Carpediem, only if matrix is zero
22:26
But, when you compute the residues, then the first and second terms cancel
@robjohn I seem to be computing it wrongly, because I end up with some weird value with $\pi$ and $\log 2$
@user58512 I mean in the case of an endomorphism
@Argon I might be completely wrong, but it seems like in the case of $x^2$ you get a divergent series
@Argon hang on
22:27
But in the case of the previous, you get things that are not divergent.
@Arkamis But I didn't include any poles in my contour. Like before, I just get other integrals
Well if you get no poles in your contour, it should be zero!
@user58512 Let us consider an endomorphism $T \in L(V)$
Right. I am not sure I am getting what you are saying exactly. What is summed here?
@robjohn Thanks
@Argon You know it is $\Gamma(3)\zeta(3)$?
22:28
What's the residue at $2\pi i$ of $\frac{x}{e^x-1}+\frac{x}{e^x+1}$?
@robjohn Yes, but my computations gave me something elementary... I must have done something wrong
An eigenvalue of T is a scalar $\lambda$ for which there exists a nonzero vector $x\in V$ such that $T(x)=\lambda x$
@Arkamis Same as before, no?
And an eigenspace is the vector subspace of the eigenvectors
@user58512
Shouldn't be. You don't have the squared term involved!
22:29
But it does not matter, because my contour does not even touch that
You have $x(e^x+1)+x(e^x-1)$ in the numerator; evaluated at $2\pi i$, you should get $2\pi i - 2\pi i = 0$.
@Arkamis $2\pi i$
@Arkamis Oh, I hadn't noticed. $2 \pi i$
Wait
@Arkamis $e^{2 \pi i }+1 = 2$
22:30
I'm an idiot
Yeah, 1+1 = 2, not 1
hehhehehe
Disregard the last 45 minutes of my life.
:)
I'm going to go walk off a cliff now.
@user58512 So in this case, can an eigenvector be equal to zero?
22:31
Sorry for confusing you -- I had a misunderstanding from the beginning!
@Arkamis No worries, thanks anyways :)
@Carpediem, i dont know
@Charlie assimilation is just part of the game
@Argon But my point stands -- when you asked about doing it from $-\infty$ to $\infty$, you basically include infinite poles, the sum of the residues at which diverges, so $\int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{x^2}{e^x-1}\ dx$ does not converge
@Arkamis That is assuming that the contour dissapears around $Re^{i\theta}$ so that the real integral can be found by summing the poles. But this doesn't work here
22:36
@Argon what contour are you using?
@robjohn Same as last: $0, R, R+i\pi, i\pi$
@Argon okay
@Argon Right, so, now that I understand what you're asking, and that I've confirmed that 1+1 = 2, let me see if I can brain a little better.
user19161
@Arkamis 1+1=2 is my favourite equation!
The rightmost vertical segment should vanish in the limit, for one
e^R grows faster than R^2
22:45
Yep
user19161
I think @argon will win the Fields medal for computing some hard integrals...
@JacobBlack Haha I don't think they give Fields medals for that :)
@Argon it should just break down into some integrals that you've computed before
user19161
@Argon The integral happens to solve RH!
@Arkamis This is what I got too, just with a $\log 2$ in there. But the integral should be nonelementary!
22:50
Since you're not enclosing any poles, you just have the real integral equal to the top, left, and right segments
@JacobBlack HAHAHAHAHAHAHA
But the right segment disappears in the limit
And then effectively you just have to compute $\int_0^a \frac{x^2}{e^x-1} dx$ a couple times, and $\int_0^a \frac{x}{e^x-1} dx$ a couple times, if I'm doing my mental math right.
along with some constants thrown in
I'm abusing a bit of notation here, by $\int_0^a$ I mean the integral along some segment on the curve
This is what all got, but all the integrals seem to have elementary closed forms
user19161
Hey @amzoti!
no one has proved that zeta(3) isn't elemetary...
:D
22:55
Hi @JacobBlack
maybe someone can answer a question
@user58512 Haha this is true. Perhaps this is its closed form! }:)
a new person posted a question and part of the question was hidden from the actual view (you had to click edit to see it)
link please @Amzoti
of course, this confused everyone and it was closed (about three seconds before I posted an answer)
I cannot see it
it dealt with eigenvectors
the poor guy was new and he messed up mathjax
also had a language barrier
I figured out his issue
was going to post answer and fix bad mathjax on question
however, i can no longer find the thing
I though they are tagged with closed
I wanted to reopen and fix
@Amzoti was it @Carpediem?
22:59
Not sure
I will try and look for it again as I am not sure why I can no longer see it
Nope - sorry I cannot find any trace of the thing!
Is there a way to see a list of closed questions
@JacobBlack: can I steal your quote "I am confused about your confusion" :-)
23:25
Hey
How do you get continued fraction for pi?

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