« first day (800 days earlier)      last day (4216 days later) » 

10:05 PM
hi @peoplepower
 
@skullpatrol We meet again.
 
@OldJohn I have seen plenty such proofs. You have never added $0$?
 
a+0=0+a=a
@JonasTeuwen is this^ what you're talking about?
 
@skullpatrol Perhaps something like $f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x)g(x)=f(x+h)g(x+h)-f(x+h)g(x)+f(x+h)g(x)-f(x)g(x)$ which simplifies to $f(x+h)\Delta g(x)+\Delta f(x)g(x)$
 
@peoplepower ? which simplifies to 0_o
 
user19161
10:18 PM
@peoplepower That is used to prove the product rule for derivatives.
 
@skullpatrol $-f(x+h)g(x)+f(x+h)g(x)$ is zero, so we're adding zero and expressing it in a compatible way.
@JasperLoy Yep
 
user19161
a=a is a vital step only in some logic proofs I guess. There a=a will be one of the axioms.
 
@anon Hey
Did you see the rest of what I typed yesterday?
 
yo
yeah
 
Is it ok for you?
 
10:24 PM
yeah
 
@anon I also edited my answer completely here
 
@BenjaLim Hey, Aussie.
 
EXTERIOR ALGEBRA
@PeterTamaroff I edited my answer in the link there
 
@BenjaLim BLACK HOLES.
 
@anon Actually now I think determinants are very natural
@anon Did my explanation to your thing yesterday help
 
10:25 PM
showing the map was balanced helped
 
yeah because then you get a group homomorphism out of the tensor product
 
user19161
@peter Have you seen the linear algebra book I recommended, the one by Petersen? Peter should read Petersen.
 
but I think the key point now is that you have some guy being a $kH - k(H \cap K^g) $ bimodule
so the tensor product has the structure of a $kH$ module
and your group homomorphism is now a homomorphism of left $kH$ - modules @anon
@anon Hey I felt because you helped me so much in the past that this time I should try to help you too
 
@JasperLoy I was just curious, I didn't read it. I'm with analysis now, and I think I'll move on with algebra using my uni's book.
 
@PeterTamaroff This is the way to think of the determinant
 
user19161
10:27 PM
@PeterTamaroff Yes, good good. Curiosity kills the cat, not Pedro.
 
@BenjaLim Are you evangelizing us now?
 
@PeterTamaroff You should say: Are you evangelizing ?
I don't think you can "evangelize someone"
 
@BenjaLim You do.
 
but anyway I wanted to say determinants are beautiful
 
@BenjaLim Awwwwwwwwwww
Did you propose?
 
user19161
10:29 PM
@BenjaLim As beautiful as Benjamin.
 
yeah if you think about them in terms of exterior powers
@JasperLoy determinants
Now I disagree with axler
 
user19161
@BenjaLim That Axler book is over-rated. Read Petersen. It is the best now.
 
Analysis now?
 
user19161
No, Petersen's Linear Algebra.
 
But if you have read all the books you suggest. You would be an A+ researcher already. I think...
2
 
@BenjaLim Can yuo help mewith some¿
 
@PeterTamaroff yes?
 
user19161
Not Pedersen's Analysis Now.
 
@BenjaLim Well, let $A\subset \mathbb R$ be infinite and bounded.
 
ok
 
10:30 PM
I have proven the following:
 
yes?
 
user19161
@JonasTeuwen Now, I am only a banana.
 
$(1)$ $x$ is an acumulation point of $A$ iff for every $\epsilon>0$ there exist infinitely many $a\in A$ such that $|x-a|<\epsilon.$
 
ok
 
$(2)$
 
10:32 PM
@BenjaLim Hmm, I would argue through what those matrices mean.
 
$\overline{\lim}A$ and $\underline{\lim}A$ are acumulation points of $A$.
 
@JonasTeuwen what matrices?
 
Expanding it seems so unimaginative to me.
@BenjaLim The ones having determinant $1$.
 
@PeterTamaroff I don't understand your notation
@JonasTeuwen I don't understand what you're saying
 
@BenjaLim $\limsup A$ and $\liminf A$
 
10:32 PM
ok
 
Now, my definition of those is:
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff You misspelled "accumulation".
 
you normally define those for sequences
but your $A$ could be uncountable
 
@BenjaLim Yes, of course.
 
@JonasTeuwen What are you saying to me about matrices?
 
10:34 PM
The problem, of course, is that there is no limit after taking supremum.
It's constant.
 
user19161
@peoplepower After taking something, one wants even more. There is no end.
 
But sup $A$ could be some isolated point.
 
user19161
@peoplepower Use $\sup A$.
 
user19161
See the difference?
 
I see. $\sup$
 
10:35 PM
@BenjaLim We say $a$ is an almost upper bound of $A$ if there exist only finite amount of $y\in A$ with $y\geq a$ and we say $b$ is an almost lower bound of $A$ if there exist only finite amount of $y\in A$ such that $y\leq a$. We then define $$\limsup A=\inf\{x:x\text{ is an almost upper bound of} A \}$$ $$\liminf A=\sup\{x:x\text{ is an almost lower bound of}A\}$$
 
ok
 
Now I want to prove thatif $x$ is an accumulation point of $A$, $\liminf A\leq x\leq \limsup A$.
 
Ok. What have you tried?
 
@BenjaLim Well, I was thinking about arguiing by contradiction, but I had to leave.
Let me see what I wrote.
 
Wait da fuq?
 
10:37 PM
@BenjaLim Huh?
 
Isn't that inequality you wrote down obvious from the definition of sup and inf?
oh no sorry
 
@BenjaLim That is not a set!
 
But wait now I am confused what is $x$ then?
 
@BenjaLim $x$ is an accumulation point of $A$.
 
@BenjaLim One's a free variable, the other is chosen to be an accumulation point.
 
10:39 PM
Ok.
 
@BenjaLim What shouldn't be hard to show is that if $x$ is an accumulation point of $A$ then $\inf A\leq x\leq \sup A$.
 
You see I am trying to do a proof by contradiction now and say that if $x < \lim \inf A$
 
@PeterTamaroff If $a$ is an almost upper bound and an accumulation point, then for small enough $\delta$, where will the $y\in A$ come from such that $|a-y|<\delta$.
i.e. which direction?
 
@peoplepower What is your native language?
 
@PeterTamaroff English.
 
10:45 PM
@peoplepower I'm having a hard time understanding "come from such that"
 
@PeterTamaroff Which side of $a$ (left or right)?
 
@BenjaLim Such operators can be represented by matrices...
 
what operators
 
@BenjaLim Yes, me too.
 
Hence, you do that. Think about what it says and you are like "ah, easy."
@BenjaLim The thing you've linked.
 
10:46 PM
what what says?
@JonasTeuwen I gave the proof as to why that is true in terms of exterior powers
 
Yes, and I feel that it is killing a mosquito with a hammer.
2
I feel more for seeing your exterior powers as a (kinda) natural generalization of the "easy stuff" than the other way around as a specialisation.
 
@peoplepower I think I got it.
 
@JonasTeuwen If you like algebra that is the way to think about it. What mosquito did I kill with a hammer?
@PeterTamaroff What is your proof?
 
I beg to differ that is.
 
suppose that $x < \lim \inf A$
@JonasTeuwen Why is it nuking a mosquito?
 
10:50 PM
I am pretty sure the algebraists (I know some) have an intuitive understanding based on easier concepts.
 
[\bigwedge\nolimits^{\!k}V]
 
And exploit that intuition to solve harder problems.
Nevermind.
 
@JonasTeuwen we are having a debate
but I'm willing to listen to what you have to say.
because it may be useful
 
I don't feel like having a debate. You figure it out by yourself when you need to do research!
I had the same thing when I was younger.
Now I figured how people come up with these things... the other way around!
 
Well, I have proven that $\inf A\leq \liminf A\leq\limsup A\leq \sup A$. So, I can first prove that $\inf A \leqslant x \leqslant \sup A$ for any limit point of $A$ and then that if $$\eqalign{
& \inf A \leqslant x \leqslant \lim \inf A \cr
& \lim \sup A \leqslant x \leqslant \sup A \cr} $$ then $$\lim \sup A = x$$ or $$x = \lim \inf A$$
 
10:53 PM
but I don't understand $x$ could be neither of these
@JonasTeuwen I mentioned reduced singular homology in my fourier analysis talk :D
 
@BenjaLim Why not?
 
@BenjaLim To prove what theorem?
 
$\limsup A$ and $\liminf A$ are accumulation points of $A$, always.
 
@JonasTeuwen Jordan curve theorem
 
Oh yes.
 
10:54 PM
@PeterTamaroff ok.
@JonasTeuwen Btw Thierry Coulhon was listening too
goddam he was asking a fuck ton of questions I was shivering as fuck
 
The Brouwer proof?
But dimension two is sufficient, isn't it for Fourier analysis?
 
yeah but I don't know of any other except singular homology
anyway I just mentioned the general ideas used to prove it
not the full proof
 
@JonasTeuwen You never answered how a+0=a and a=a are the same?
 
Yea? So what?
 
You said they were.
 
10:57 PM
@BenjaLim The one in $\mathbb R^2$ can be proven quite directly.
 
you need van kampen even
 
Mm. Just homotopy.
 
@skullpatrol What is your question?
 
@PeterTamaroff have you ever seen a proof where the step "a=a" is a vital step?
 
@JonasTeuwen still algebraic topology
 
11:01 PM
@PeterTamaroff Jonas says that when you use a+0=a you are using a=a.
 
@skullpatrol How would that be a step? It is an axiom.
 
@PeterTamaroff Use the axiom in a step.
 
@skullpatrol We always use that. I don't understand what you mean.
 
@PeterTamaroff Example please.
 
@skullpatrol I mean, $=$ is a relation defined so that $a=a$, always.
 
11:05 PM
@PeterTamaroff Please provide a specific example of how you would use that relation in a proof. @JonasTeuwen
 
user19161
@skullpatrol Hmm, this seems a pretty rhetorical question!
 
No. Please shut up or stop pinging me!!!
6
 
@JonasTeuwen LOL
 
You pinged Old John saying a+0=a is the same as a=a.
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Please stop laughing!
 
11:09 PM
@JasperLoy NEVER.
 
user19161
@skullpatrol It is certainly different. Jonas sometimes speaks nonsense.
 
good answer^
 
@skullpatrol You need to be clear about what you're talking about.
 
4 mins ago, by skullpatrol
@PeterTamaroff Please provide a specific example of how you would use that relation in a proof. @JonasTeuwen
 
$a+0=a\iff a=a$
2
 
11:10 PM
@JasperLoy Err... Yeah well.
See you guys.
 
later
 
@JonasTeuwen Good luck.
 
user19161
@skullpatrol I think this is really a rhetorical question, so I am closevoting it.
 
@JonasTeuwen GUSFRAVA!
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Good luck seems to be the new good bye.
 
11:19 PM
@JasperLoy Well, one lasts longer, so no =)
 
@PeterTamaroff One could last longer, so maybe ;-)
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Hmm, I am having naughty thoughts now...
 
@JasperLoy Damn you, Loy.
 
user19161
@PeterTamaroff You should call me J, not L. I don't call you T dude, unless I am quoting your theorem.
 
@JasperLoy Well, you aren't black, so J is out of the question.
And you don't have a neuralizer.
 
user19161
11:27 PM
@PeterTamaroff Wait, what has black got to do with J?
 
mib
 
user19161
Again, anon interjects mysteriously. So cool...
 
user19161
Yes I know skullie.
 
@PeterTamaroff J.J. was a character in the Good Times.
 
11:44 PM
@JasperLoy Men In Black = MIB
 

« first day (800 days earlier)      last day (4216 days later) »