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00:05
@D.C.theIII There’s an extra subtlety. What norm are you using to measure $\delta$?
Well I set it up through $\|f(A+H) - f(A) \| = \|(A+H)^{-1} - A^{-1}\|$. I wanted to ask about the $A+H$ notion as well. But for the current moment I used that to represent a general invertible map in the space. So that whole set is less than $\|A^{-1}\| \frac{\epsilon}{1- \epsilon}$ which I have from part (b) of the question.
@shintuku Do you think an explicit function $f(n) = \sum_{i=0}^{n-1} 10^i$ would work?
There is also thr $\|A^{-1}H\| \leq \|A^{-1}\|\|H\| < \epsilon < 1$ relationship I have as well
@THE_CRANIUM yeah there's a bijection between natural numbers made out of only 1 and the strings made out of only 1
take that as an axiom and you can prove your desired bijection @THE_CRANIUM
@Jakobian It's very unclear. But from their comments, I guess they want some way to evaluate the divergent Taylor expansion of $$\lim_{v\to c}\,1/\sqrt{1-v^2/c^2}$$ similar to 1+2+3+4+...=-1/12.
00:18
So another idea from the same part (b) which can also be applied is that if $\|H\| < \epsilon / \|A^{-1}\|$ then $\|(A+H)^{-1} - A^{-1}\|< \frac{\epsilon}{1- \epsilon}$ but this time $\epsilon = \epsilon / \|A^{-1}\|$
OK, so you’re using the norm, rather than usual Euclidean length. They’re related by an exercise in section 5.1. I don’t get your last thing.
Are we trying to choose $\delta$ so that the norm of the difference of the inverses is less than $\epsilon$?
I used the relationship you allude to from section 5.1 when I did 6 (c): $\|A\| \leq (\sum_{i,j}a_{i,j}^2)^{1/2} \leq \sqrt{n} \|A\|$. And to your second question that's what I'm attempting. THe last part was just me playing around with what I know
well actually I didn't but I know that it was the hint...
What hint?
How do you get $\epsilon$ instead of over $1-\epsilon$?
the hint was if $(\sum h_{ij}^2)^{1/2} < \delta$, then $\|H\| < \delta$, but that was from 6(c)
00:34
Originally I had said $\delta = \frac{1- \epsilon}{\|A^{-1}\|}$
That has to be wrong. Why?
but that doesn't exactly work with my inequality relationship that I have because what I want is $ \|(A+H)^{-1} - A^{-1}\| < \delta$, but what I have is: $ \|(A+H)^{-1} - A^{-1}\| < \|A^{-1}\| \frac{\epsilon}{1- \epsilon}$ as a relationship. But going back to the original inequalities if I can bound $\|H\|$ properly then I'll be in business
No, that is certainly not what you want!
What’s the $\delta$-$\epsilon$ definition, again?
00:44
for all $\epsilon > 0 $, and for all $A \in X$ there exists a $\delta > 0$ such that for all $H \in X$ if $\| H - A \| < \delta$, the $\|f(H) - f(A)\| < \epsilon$. Here $X$ is just the set of invertible matrices
I do wonder if I should have used $A+H$ instead of just $H$ in the defintion.
I’d rather stick with my notation. We’re comparing $A$ and $A+H$. So where did your what I want is come from?
@D.C.theIII Indeed.
So if I use the $A+H$ instead I will have $\|H\| < \delta$
Which makes sense.
yea, this part of it was me not being 100% clear on how to treat the objects.
So how do you end up with $\|f(A+H)-f(A)\|<\epsilon$?
00:51
just fiddling around to get it...I've not diappeared
No prob
01:14
sigh...I can't seem to isolate an $H$ to find a $\delta$....
This is just basic algebra. You want to make $bx/(1-x)=\epsilon$.
amateur mistake....not remembering that the two $\epsilon$'s are not the same. So what I get is $\epsilon^{'} = \epsilon/(\|A^{-1}\| + \epsilon)$.
so if $\delta = \frac{\epsilon}{(\|A^{-1}\| + \epsilon)\|A^{-1}\|}$ then $\|(A+H)^{-1} - A^{-1}\| < \frac{\epsilon^{'}}{1 - \epsilon^{'}} = \epsilon$
01:30
One should never have been $\epsilon$ :)
Right. Well done.
I was just trying to see how the $\delta$ creates the implication in the whole idea. it is because we have $\|A^{-1}\|\|H\| < \epsilon$, but in this case $\epsilon$ is my $\epsilon^{'}$ so the relationship that I established in part (b) can be used.
Part of the trick of real analysis is parsing the logic of your epsilons.
So back to this $A+H$ idea........so are you implying from what I proved, that whatever fixed invertible matrix $A$ that I take, if I take a square matrix $H$, as long as the condition $1/ \|A^{-1}\|$ is satisfied then $A+H$ will be invertible?...
more so what I'm trying to get at is if this characterizes the set $GL(n)$?
01:49
Yes, but this goes back to earlier things. Not the continuity we’ve just been through.
Yes yes...I wanted to ask about it before, but just wanted to get the continuity idea completed.
That’s an empirical argument that $GL$ is open. There are abstract ways just with continuity of det (discussed in chap 7).
but it is necessary that the norm of the square matrix $H$ be less than $1$. So these square matrices can expressed as infintie series?
No, look carefully.
So from 6(a) I got that $(I-H)^{-1} = \sum_{k = 0}^\infty H^k$ and from 7(b) I had gotten $(I- A^{-1}H)^{-1} = \sum_{k=0}^\infty (A^{-1}H)^k$.
02:26
Any nilpotent $H$ will also converge, regardless of norm.
We’re trying to get an open ball, @copper.
So it’s $A^{-1}H$ whose norm you need to control. Whence ….
An open ball around $I$ so that $I+H$ is invertible?
Or, more generally, around an invertible $A$.
Useful result.
02:51
That was the second part of my question too.....everything was going to be dependent on the invertible matrix $A$.
As you expect, of course.
hmmm......this idea of open is something I have to get comfortable with.....interesting idea though.
It’s no different from chapter 2.
feels like it. Mainly because of the objects and how they are defined.
They’re still elements of a vector space.
02:56
if I think of the matrices as just "points" then I understand what you mean
as you just said above
Yup. In this context, that’s how you should think.
03:12
I'm at a stage where I have to start blending the various subjects more fluidly: Analysis, Linear Alg, Topology, etc......
@TedShifrin Could you check my working in this answer: math.stackexchange.com/questions/1581136/…
I don't understand the downvote.
Who knows. But your solution is just an expanded version of achille hui’s from 8 years ago.
03:36
munkres has nothing on finite topological spaces
where are these
03:51
@D.C.theIII Matrices with the Frobenius norm make the connection to the 'usual' vectors obvious.
04:20
I didn't teach DC that term. But he did the exercise comparing that norm to the operator norm (which term I also did not use) :D
Guys, need some help with this, please :
0
Q: Show that $(a, b]$ and $[c, d)$ have the same cardinality, where $a, b, c , d$ are real numbers and $a <b, c<d.$

Thomas FinleyShow that $(a, b]$ and $[c, d)$ have the same cardinality, where $a, b, c,d$ are real numbers and $a <b, c<d.$ This is a well-known classical question in real analysis, if I am not wrong. The thing is, these problems are new to me and I am interested in learning some general approaches to establi...

k, jiang has given maybe the most explicit solution in the comments. there is a bijection between these intervals whose graph is a line segment and the formula for it is in that comment.
breaking it down as a series of bijections into other spaces is fine too. i haven't checked your formulas (or k. jiang's)
@leslietownes Then, you might consider checking my work ?(If that interests you, coz I need to know what I did was at all legit or not. A concise and apt clarification, is what I am lookin for)
something missing from your outline is that all of the families of 'transformations' you describe are, in fact, bijections. this is very close to the surface but it is definitely part of the problem. writing one function as a composite of "simpler" maps is a useful general idea, but the only reason it produces a bijection in this case is because each of the simpelr maps are bijections.
you say "all of these transformations are bijections," and that is certainly true, but a lot of people might also regard that as of roughly the same level of 'difficulty' as the original problem.
so what you describe is a 'legit way' in the sense of how it is someone might approach the problem and come up with the formula in that comment. but arguably, it is missing a moment where one proves (rather than just says) that one or all of those basic transformations are bijections.
04:36
@leslietownes So you are saying to prove them to be bijections ? It seems doable, but won't it make the answer huge? I mean, I never verified it myself, whether they all are bijections or not, but it seems to be true intuitively. I think, a better idea, is to prove the final transformation, I wrote at last, to be a bijection. Do you agree?
coming up with formulas for those functions is arguably most of the "work", because you can use the formulas to prove bijectivity in a straightforward way.
@XanderHenderson May I ask about what your research field is?
@leslietownes Ok, let me see, if I can attach a proof of bijectiveness of the final formula, at the bottom.
thomas: i agree with you there. once you have the formula for that map that you want, proving that it gives a bijection is about the same amount of work as it would be to prove that any one of the ingredient 'transformations' is a bijection.
@leslietownes yes, and the later would be simpler in my opinion.
04:38
i think the logic of thinking through the map as a chain of simpler transformations is maybe helpful in coming up with that formula, but yeah, once you've got it, you can forget how you got it and just prove that it does what you want.
@leslietownes That's a good idea.
note that sometimes the difficulty can go the other way around. e.g. if someone gives you some random formula from a calculus book and asks you to prove that it's continuous at all real numbers, it might actually be shorter to generally prove "a sum of continuous functions is continuous," "a composition of continuous functions is continuous," etc. and then verify continuity of basic ingredients (such as the identity function) by hand, and note how the function is built up from those ingredients.
if you just say "given epsilon" and try to choose delta that works for that formula, it's likely going to be a mess if you want to 'customize' the delta for that given epsilon.
but here, having an explicit formula for something makes it easier to do a "one-off" proof that doesn't detour through intermediate results.
@Thomas This is still the easy one. I asked you to do $(a,b)$ and $[c,d)$ or $[c,d]$.
Good luck trying to find a linear function!
@leslie Phbhhhhbt!
Author says 'introductory' I say 'introductory for people who already know'
More whining in here. What subject/book?
04:54
Just a joke it's not whining.
OK … You haven’t traditionally been a whiner!
basic does not necessarily mean easy
good night folks!
Night, copper!
consider the set $\{a,b,c\}$ with the topology $\{\emptyset, \{c\}, \{b,c\}, \{a,b,c\}\}$. am i correct in saying that $\{a,c\}$ is neither closed nor open?
a detail description of the book Xander linked says 'Background needed for a potential reader of the book consists of a working knowledge of real and complex analysis on the level of first- and second-year graduate courses.' How much should I know exactly? Full knowledge of RCA for example?
05:03
@shintuku yes turns out this is a thing that can happen
@leslietownes I made the modufucations and added a section in it, where I formally prove it. If you're still interested, your remarks regarding it, will be much helpful.
@TedShifrin As @leslietownes mentioned, I should've done the thing, more formally. It was just now, I have done it and attached it to the OP. So, you might say, I am occupied with this stuff, rather than proceed towards the general case. You might check it out, too ( If you're interested). Your remarks will also be helpful!
Thanks @copper.hat
ted: bphtbtpt
@leslietownes Do think the proof's formal "enough"?
@shintuku yes, you are.
You can even say that the set with that topology is not metrizable.
Because metric spaces are Hausdorff but this space is not: it is not possible to separate b and c by disjoint open sets.
05:17
@Koro I did a proof, of the fact that $(a,b]$ and $(c,d]$ does have the same cardinality, which we're talking bout a few hrs ago. You might consider giving it a look.
0
Q: Show that $(a, b]$ and $[c, d)$ have the same cardinality, where $a, b, c , d$ are real numbers and $a <b, c<d.$

Thomas FinleyShow that $(a, b]$ and $[c, d)$ have the same cardinality, where $a, b, c,d$ are real numbers and $a <b, c<d.$ This is a well-known classical question in real analysis, if I am not wrong. The thing is, these problems are new to me and I am interested in learning some general approaches to establi...

at koro: ty
am studying nonhausdorff spaces 😎
Still no answer to this:
0
Q: Absurdity while calculating the $p$ discriminant.

Thomas FinleyFind the $p-discriminant $ of the differential equation $F(x,y,p)\equiv 4xp^2-(3x-1)^2=0.$(Note: $p=\frac{dy}{dx}$) We proceed to calculate the p-discriminant of $F(x,y,p)=0,$ where $F$ is the function representating the differential equation in the question. So, $F(x,y,p)=4xp^2-(3x-1)^2=0\implie...

(Strange!)
is that another question from your 19th century ODE book? it's possible that nobody uses the 'p discriminant' or 'eliminant' language anymore, even if the concepts are still alive.
the terms are unrecognizable to me.
lol
Any recommendation on functional analysis textbook leslie?
the chapters in folland's real analysis books are a good intro to the essentials. i forget if they have everything but i think they cover most of the major things. certainly all the L^p theory is in there.
peter lax's functional analysis book is really good, but also i think pretty expensive.
riesz and sz.-nagy have a book available in super cheap dover reprint that is really good, but also pretty 'old fashioned.' there might be stuff about the p discriminant in there for all i know.
05:30
aha I was looking for some functional analysis textbook after folland
lax is the best book i have seen.
i should say, i didn't learn directly from that book, i got it later, but every time i needed to look something up, it was usually in there, and with better proofs than i had seen before.
conway's book is a fine overview but i didn't learn out of that one either and the exposition is not as good as lax.
if you have specific stuff you are interested in maybe there are more specific books. lax has a few nods to ODE/PDE but i don't think he does a ton of it. if you want to learn weird shit about abstract banach spaces you are not going to find that in a survey book.
@leslietownes Nope, that's a thing in my coursework.
But, what about my proof-writing? Did it match ur expectations?
@leslietownes I am aware of this.
thomas: the proof looks fine to me. i did not check every expression but it looked like the way i would expect a proof to go.
05:55
@leslietownes Ok. Thnx.
i appreciated the detail about, does this formula do the right things at endpoints and really map one interval to the other. that's the main place where the choices of coefficients in your formula "really matter."
if you like to mix and match ideas, note that you're giving an example of a bijection between those things that is "continuous" in the usual sense. it isn't significantly easier in this case to 'write down' formulas for bijections that aren't continuous, but sometimes it is, if all you want is a bijection. and sometimes it will not be possible to find a continuous bijection even if a bijection exists.
@ThomasFinley Not strange. The language/approach is not in the least consistent with modern-day mathematics.
@leslietownes Yes, I took an extra care to show that the formula does not have any element in (a,b] , outside $(c,d]$ i.e it maps every element of (a,b] to a point in (c,d] only. And also, I did not even bother to show that the function is well-defined as, I proved it to be a bijection, which should end any possible debate, about it's well-defineness whatsoever.
@leslietownes Like the “interesting case.”
@TedShifrin Do you mean, terms like "p-discriminant" have gone extinct ? That' s strange as well. I felt it's something crucial to find singular solutions of a 1st order ODE. Without that, conecept, I dont think it's really feasible to find one ( sing soln) or at most not possible to do it using elementary ways.
3 mins ago, by Thomas Finley
@leslietownes Yes, I took an extra care to show that the formula does not have any element in (a,b] , outside $(c,d]$ i.e it maps every element of (a,b] to a point in (c,d] only. And also, I did not even bother to show that the function is well-defined as, I proved it to be a bijection, which should end any possible debate, about it's well-defineness whatsoever.
Also, I think this might be a good strategy to skip proving whether a function is well-defined or not
i.e, by showing that it is a bijection/injection/onto. Isn't it, @leslietownes ?
@leslietownes Yes, but tbh, I think I haven't encountered such cases as of yet, or if I have, then it wasn't too significant either.
06:09
i'm not sure what you mean by 'well defined.' i guess it's clear that the formula makes sense as a map from [whatever the domain is] to some subset of R, and in proving that the function is one-to-one, the algebra basically doesn't notice or care what the range of the function is. in proving that it's onto, you do need to say, okay, for y in [this specific set] we can produce x in [this specific set].
so you do need to deal with that somewhere.
where you deal with that is up to you.
@leslietownes By well-defineness I meant, that for a particular "input" of a function, it doesn't give two different outputs, i.e produces only one value for each input (in domain).
yeah, i don't see this problem as really presenting that issue.
So, I was just saying, we don't really have to bother about this, since we have already proved the function to be a bijection, and so, it closes all the debates.
@leslietownes More because of this ↓↓↓. Isn't it?
2 mins ago, by Thomas Finley
So, I was just saying, we don't really have to bother about this, since we have already proved the function to be a bijection, and so, it closes all the debates.
i don't see it as being in the function "being a bijection." it's more in, you have a background understanding of the formulas used to define the function. you have to know what addition and multiplication of real numbers are to make sense of that. and if you do know that, you know it's producing only one output for each input.
the only conceivable static around that might be if your formula had denominators that might be zero or something. but it doesn't.
with more complicated formulas, or functions that didn't have 'algebraic formulas' at all, i could see their being issues.
e.g. if you purport to define "f(x)" by using the decimal expansion of x, there would be some detail checking around whether your purported definition assigns the same value to 0.9999... as it does to 1.0000..., things like that.
or if the formula for f is a complicated composition of things that maybe aren't defined everywhere. you see this in calculus books, e.g. ln(sin(bleh)) + sqrt(blah)), you have to wonder, well wait, for x in my domain, does this formula even have meaning, e.g. is it asking me to ln something that isn't a positive number or sqrt something that isn't nonnegative.
@leslietownes When I give it a thought, what you said it seems true. I was making this complicated here. The only thing gurantees that two distinct outputs doesn't occur, just follows immediately from the fact that addition and multiplication, division and subtraction all are well-defined binary operations in real numbers. My bad, for over -complicating and over- analysing it!
06:19
but just with f(x) = mx + b, i don't see there being issues in, okay, that defines only one thing for any given x. the issue maybe being, given x, does it define not just some real number (which it clearly does and maybe this isn't worth comment) versus does it return an element of [c,d] (or whatever, which absolutely is worth comment, but is maybe covered in your proof of f being surjective, or maybe separately covered in an argument specific to mapping properties of f)
@leslietownes yes, I agree.
its pretty common in calculus/analysis/whatever to easily write down functions and intervals where you can't easily say what the range is. e.g. to find what f([a,b]) is even if f is continuous you need to actually identify the max and min values of f and that could be difficult even if f has a 'nice formula.'
thats not directly related to your problem, just a random observation. its not that 'common' to be able to identify the mapping properties of a randomly given real valued function on R, even if it has a nice formula.
@leslietownes Hmm, I know what you mean.
Is the above question at all valid ?
It basically implies for any two arbitrary sets, $A,B$ in real nos, $cl(A)\subset cl(B).$
This is absurd.
By cl(A) - I mean closure of A, which is also sometimes expressed as $\overline{A}$
Am I inferring the scenario correctly ?
06:39
there is a missing hypothesis, presumably that A is a subset of B.
they like nesting binary relations more than i do but this might even be a typo, "A, B subset R" instead of "A subset B subset R"
07:13
@leslietownes Yes, that might be the only possible explanation. If A is a subset of B, then it's very trivial to prove cl(A) is a subset of cl(B). This is easy as, A' is a subset of B'. So, cl(A) which is the union of A and A' and cl(B) which is a union of B' and B, implies, cl(A) is a subset of cl(B).
what's an example of a space X which is sequentially compact but not limit point compact?
@Jakobian
Are sequentially compactness and limit point compactness equivalent?
@leslietownes What do you think about the example I cited here?
1
Q: Let $A,B\subset \Bbb R.$ Then prove that $\overline{A\cap B}\subset \overline{A}, \overline{B}.$

Thomas FinleyLet $A,B\subset \Bbb R.$ Then prove that $\overline{A\cap B}\subset \overline{A}\subset \overline{B}.$ Give example to show, $\overline{A\cap B}\neq \overline{A}\subset \overline{B}.$ I think, $\overline A$ denotes the closure of the set $A.$ Assuming this, notation, being used here, I feel the q...

I think probably the smallest uncountable ordinal with the order topology works, @Koro
A conceptually easier version is the one-point compactification of the long ray. The point at infinity is clearly a limit point, but not limit of any sequence
Any sequence, arranged in increasing order, stops at a countable ordinal
I have not thought very hard about this though
@BalarkaSen I think that's true by ordinal definition.
thomas: in your example, A and B are not disjoint, in fact B is a subset of A (e.g. because 1/k = 1/(2k) + 1/(2k))
I'll think about this.
07:52
31 mins ago, by Koro
what's an example of a space X which is sequentially compact but not limit point compact?
no such example exists.
because seq. compactness \implies l.p.c
I see why the converse may not be true at least in case the space is not 1st countable.
@BalarkaSen here, if one takes increasing unbounded sequence?
2
A: Comparison of sequential compactness and limit point compactness.

erolbarutSequential compactness implies limit point compactness in general. Let S be an infinite set. Since S is infinite you can have a sequence such that $x_n \neq x_m $ for all n,m integer. Sequential compactness implies this guy has a convergent subsequence and limit x of this subsequence is a limit ...

what is 'right order topology'?
I don't think (a, \infty) form a basis for some topology on R.
if they did, then (a,b] is open (being \cap of (a,\infty) and (b,\infty) assuming b>a) but for any $x\in (a,b]$, there is no c such that $x\in (c,\infty)\subset (a,b]$.
i havent thought about these things in a couple of years
id have to work to engage with your questions more meaningfully
Jakobian is probably the person to ask
I tagged him already. Let's wait for his inputs.
koro OP may mean subbasis instead of basis. have you tried parsing the example if that is the case?
I was just thinking about that
also, isn't the intersection of (a, infty) and (b, infty) just (b, infty) when b > a
08:07
oh my bad, I don't know what I was thinking
indeed isn't bigcup (a_i, infty) = (inf a_i, infty) and bigcap (a_i, infty) = (sup a_i, infty) so the thing is even closed under arbitrary (not just finite) intersections
oh, then I think we are done.
koro if you look at the site i linked above, it would not surprise me if it knows at least most of the examples from the 'counterexamples in topology' text, so you can often order it to offer up examples within that universe
That gives the example: limit pt. compact but not sequentially compact.
thank you so much
@leslietownes I looked at it but found the navigation there confusing :(.
(like they nowhere seem to be using the term 'limit point compactness')
OK. like some sources, they say "weakly countably compact" instead of "limit point compact."
you can click on any terms it uses to see what definitions it is using, and when it can't find an example of something with a combination of properties, it can often spit out a proof of why no such example exists.
if you do care about point set topology (and i'm not suggesting that you ought to, and might even recommend against it), it might be a good resource
08:19
@leslietownes thanks, I think you had shared that link earlier also here.
there used to be some other site which was less 'interactive' but maybe also easier to read. i've definitely linked that other one to somebody.
it was a huge chart, instead of this thing where you type in properties.
08:36
@leslietownes That 's admittedly a nice observation. Do you have any suitable example in your mind ?
someone has given one there. if you don't like "weird" topologies, you can find examples with subsets A, B of R with the usual topology where A intersect B is empty while cl(A) = cl(B) = R. you can even find such examples where B = R \ A, where the desired property is just "A is dense and its complement is also dense"
^My honest reaction when our professor cracks a “joke”
@leslietownes tbh, I only know about Basic Topology in R and the general notion of topology, topologic space, metric space are unknown to me at this stage.
But yes, I came up with an idea, looking at the answer you're talking about. If we consider A={a} and B={b} such that, a\neq b, then, A'( the set of limit pts of A) is an empty set, and so is B'(the set of limit points of B). So, cl(A)={a} and cl(B)={b}. Now, $A\cap B=\emptyset$ and $(A\cap B)'=\emptyset$ and so, $cl(A\cap B)$ is an empty set, but cl(A)={a} and cl(B)={b} and so, cl(A\cap B)\neq cl(A)\neq cl(B). Is this example simple enough ?
@leslietownes Yes, your example is nice as well.
But what do you think bout the one I gave now?
09:10
Please would someone suggest improvements for the following (as it was downvoted and I don't know why)?
1
Q: What is the connection between algebraic groups and topoi?

ShaunI have a longstanding interest in topos theory. (See this MSE search of my questions about topos theory.) I am studying for a postgraduate research degree in linear algebraic group theory. Naturally, I wonder what connections there are between the two. A quick Google search produces this page, in...

@Koro no, all types of compactness are not equivalent, but for $T_1$ spaces limit point compactness is just countable compactness
yes, figured.
You can find examples on pi-base like Leslie or counter-examples in topology where those examples are from
Most of the spaces on pi-base are from that book
Leslie: have you watched tv-show 'from'?
@冥王Hades
I thought there won't ever be any show like Haunting of hill house or Haunting of Bly manor, but from is so amazing.
it has that 'post-apocalyptic' kind of setting that I like.
Also for $T_4$ spaces countable compactness is just pseudocompactness
09:23
why is local connectedness formulated differently than local compactness?
What?
Do you mean connected in-kleinen
There are two inequivalent types of connectedness at a point
They coincide when they hold for all points
Oh wait I read connected twice
X is l. ctd at p if for every nbd. U of p, there is a connected open set $V\subset U$ containing p. X is l. cpt. at if p if there is a compact subspace C that contains a nbd. of p.
I am tempted to say: X is locally connected (resp. locally compact) at p if p has a connected nbd. (resp. compact nbd.).
But I see the problem with this: if X itself is connected, then X would become locally connected.
I know this is not true.
local compactness definition that I wrote above (the one involving C) is along the lines of the one given in Munkres.
Well there are different definitions of locally compact, equivalent for Hausdorff spaces
(note how it is different from connectedness)
Then I see the following definition for locally compact at p: if p has a compact nbd.
X is locally compact at p iff p has a neighbourhood basis of compact sets for example
09:31
further to my last message: this would imply every compact space is locally compact.
which I think is not true. (I'm sure that connectedness may not imply local connectedness)
and it feels weird to call an open set compact.
I'm convinced now that every compact space is locally compact.
Locally compact has like 4 definitions
X is connected im Kleinen at p iff p has a neighbourhood basis of connected sets
X is locally connected at p if p has a connected nbd. (why is this not correct?)
I know this is not correct, but what went wrong.
Does anyone have a hint on how to prove this?

Show that the set of real numbers that are solutions of
quadratic equations $ax^2 + bx + c = 0$, where a, b, and c
are integers, is countable.
@johndoe given a,b,c integrs, what is the maximum no. of solutions of the equation?
(a,b,c)\in Z^3 and Z^3 is countable.
well in any case if its a quadratic equation the number of solutions is always two right?
09:39
atmost two
(but that doesn't matter here. only finiteness is enough.)
I mean, why expect an equivalence for connected sets when they don't have all the properties that compact sets do
because I was expecting some uniformity in the definitions involving 'local'.
Anyway the proper way to say X is locally connected at p is to say it has a neighbourhood basis of open connected sets
something like: X satisfies property P locally at p if there is a nbd. U of p on which X has property P.
@Jakobian .
The definition of locally compact you cite is just the easiest to check
09:42
@Koro @Koro indeed $Z^3$ is countable but I need to prove that the set of real solutions is countable. How can I do that>
The more "canonical" one is using neighbourhood basis of compact sets
@johndoe suppose S(a,b,c)= the set of solutions of ax^2+bx+c=0. You agree that S(a,b,c) is finite. Consider the countable union $\cup_{(a,b,c)\in Z^3} S(a,b,c)$. So you have countable union of countable sets. What you are looking for is a subset of this.
So it'd be more like: X satisfies property P locally at p if there is a neighbourhood (or open neighbourhood) basis U of p with property P
3 mins ago, by Koro
something like: X satisfies property P locally at p if there is a nbd. U of p on which X has property P.
I typod I meant basis
09:45
yeah, makes sense.
Anyway open in this definition varies like with connected im Kleinen and locally connected
I don't yet know im Kleinen
For something like compactness we can't really expect for U to be open
@Koro well I explained it like 5 times above there
@Jakobian ..
12 mins ago, by Jakobian
X is connected im Kleinen at p iff p has a neighbourhood basis of connected sets
09:48
so connected im Kelinen = locally connected.
No
At a point they differ
where?
There are spaces with points connected im Kleinen but not locally connected at that point
locally connected for me is: $X$ is locally connected at p if for every nbd. U of p, there is a connected open subset V (subset of U) containing p.
09:51
collection of all such V's give me the nbd. in im Kleinen. no?
A neighbourhood need not be open
of course, I should say $V_U$'s.
ohh, nbds. are open for me.
Then compact neighbourhoods would be open too
although, I understand what you are referring to. S is a nbd. of p if S contains an open set containing p.
but I don't use that definition. I think it is Nicholas Bourbaki's definition.
Munkres also doesn't use it.
Stephen Willard does.
@Jakobian allowed in the definition in the book I'm studying currently.
But I see that will create problem if X is Hausdorff.
@Koro @Koro Noted. I have one more notation question though. Is $S$ a function?
Sorry for the double mention I'm still figuring out how the chat works
09:55
X is Hausdorff + locally compact would often mean X is not connected as the compact nbds. would be clopen, I think.
Anyway those are all the differences between locally property P, either neighbourhood basis of open sets, or just neighbourhood basis, all satisfying property P
@johndoe does it matter? But if you like: S can be considered from Z^3 to a set of sets.
so that S(a,b,c) is a set (you know it is finite as we discussed above).
do I need to prove that the set of the polynomials of this form is countable?
but that's set-isomorphic to Z^3, right?
22 mins ago, by Koro
@johndoe suppose S(a,b,c)= the set of solutions of ax^2+bx+c=0. You agree that S(a,b,c) is finite. Consider the countable union $\cup_{(a,b,c)\in Z^3} S(a,b,c)$. So you have countable union of countable sets. What you are looking for is a subset of this.
countability of Z^3 is enough here.
@Jakobian I should use this definition.
(S is a nbd. of p if S contains an open set containing p.)
10:12
It's usually better imo. There are some instances when you want to assume open, but then you can just say open neighbourhood
10:22
I think I had a moment like this once "here it's important to assume this neighbourhood is open"
When writing a proof
Jam
Jam
Suppose k a complex root of an irreducible polynomial over Q. Does Q(k) contains also the complex conjugate of k?
i mean if a+bi in a field then $(a+bi)^{-1}=\frac{1}{a^2+b^2}(a-ib)$ is in the field
but to get that i multiplied $(a+bi)^{-1}=\frac{a-bi}{(a+bi)(a-ib)}$ which i dont know if it is an element of the field tho it is equal to $1=\frac{a-bi}{a-bi}$
10:48
Is there a dedicated name for prime numbers of the form $n!+1$?
They gotta be good for performing Schönhage-Strassen algorithm.
27! + 1 is prime, for example.
Jam
Jam
search factorial primes
11:23
What does does it mean when they say"Let $ \sum u_n$ and $\sum v_n$ be two series of positive real numbers". Do they mean the terms of the sequences, $(u_n)$ and $(v_n)$ are all positive ? Or are they trying to say, all the partial sums of each series i.e $\sum u_n$ and $ \sum v_n$ are positive ?
11:52
the former
a series is just a sequence that we treat differently
@Jokobian You mean, that the phrase in general (say) "Let $\sum u_n$ be a series of positive real numbers", implies that the sequence generating the series, i.e , $(u_n)$ is such that all the terms of the sequence $(u_n)$ is positive i.e u_k\geq 0, \forall k\in \Bbb N$ ?
@Jakobian Yes, exactly
@Jakobian But it seems like the later one i.e the phrase means that the terms of the sequence of partial sums of (u_n) i e $(s_n)$ (defined by $s_1=u_1,s_2=u_1+u_2,s_3=u_1+u_2+u_3$ and so on) has all it's terms positive, i.e $s_n\gt 0$, $\forall n\in \Bbb N$.
why did you mention me 3 times in a row
12:18
@Jakobian becoz you mentioned something which seemed to be lacking context and details. That was confusing (to me)- A simple answer(?)
do you know what "the former" means
@Jakobian There is an option, called "ignore this user" when you click on someone's chat icon in here. You might consider enabling it, for me. ;)
you're jumping to conclusions
@Jakobian huh? Wdym?
@Jakobian I now understand that :
26 mins ago, by Thomas Finley
@Jokobian You mean, that the phrase in general (say) "Let $\sum u_n$ be a series of positive real numbers", implies that the sequence generating the series, i.e , $(u_n)$ is such that all the terms of the sequence $(u_n)$ is positive i.e u_k\geq 0, \forall k\in \Bbb N$ ?
is the right inference.
But needed only a clarification from you, in terms of a yes or no.
I felt that would make the communication much simpler and would prevent it from going haywire.
well that depends if you're using the French convention or not
$x$ is positive can mean either $x\geq 0$ or $x>0$
12:27
@Jakobian Ah, now that you mention, in my comment I made a latex error, i.e it should be $x\gt 0$ and not, $x\geq 0$
12:39
@ThomasFinley you're trying to pick fights with me for no reason at all. I don't like this attitude
12:54
Jun 3 at 17:02, by Jakobian
$X$ is Lindelof implies $e(X) = \aleph_0$ where $e(X)$ is the extent of $X$
@SouravGhosh turns out spaces with $e(X) = \aleph_1$ are called $\aleph_1$-compact
In one of the solutions given by my lecturer, there is written: "$\int_1^{+\infty} \frac{1-\cos x}{\left(\sqrt{1+x^2}-1\right)\arctan \sqrt{x}}dx$ diverges because $\frac{1-\cos x}{\left(\sqrt{1+x^2}-1\right)\arctan \sqrt{x}}=o\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}\right)$ as $x \to +\infty$". However, I don't think this is correct; because
$\int_1^{+\infty} \frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}dx$ diverges.
Is the solution incorrect or am I wrong?
See this paper
I mean, $\frac{1-\cos x}{\left(\sqrt{1+x^2}-1\right)\arctan \sqrt{x}}=o\left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}\right)$ as $x \to +\infty$ is true but this means that for "big positive $x$" we have $\frac{1-\cos x}{\left(\sqrt{1+x^2}-1\right)\arctan \sqrt{x}}<\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}$, but this does not imply the convergence of $\int_1^\infty \frac{1-\cos x}{\left(\sqrt{1+x^2}-1\right)\arctan \sqrt{x}}dx$.
I am stuck on this one definition of neighborhoods.
> Let $X$ be a metric space . A set $U\subset X$ is a neighborhood of $x\in X$ if $B_r(x)\subset U$ for some $r>0$.
Now, is a neighborhood necessarily an open set? It seems not.
It doesn't have to be
13:01
Right, thanks @Jakobian.
Rudin for example defines neighborhoods differently, i.e. his definition of neighborhood is equivalent to an open ball.
I need to prove that the function $ f: Z^+ \times Z^+ \rightarrow Z^+$ is injective. It's defined as $f(m,n) = \frac{(m+n-2)(m+n-1)}{2} + m$. I tried using $(a,b) \ne (c,d) \implies f(a,b) \ne f(c,d)$ and got

$a^2 + 2ab - a + b^2 - 3b = c^2 + 2cd - c + d^2 - 3d$.

Does anyone have an idea how to proceed?
13:17
@Jakobian Don't get me wrong. I never tried picking up fights with you. Moreover I appreciate how you helped me get over the dilemma. This is the problem of online media as they say, "Tone is hard to decipher."( Sheesh... I was at one point, simply joking with you, haha.)
actually this is ambiguous because a lot of people use $\aleph_1$-compact to just refer to Lindelof spaces
My impression to you is not hostile in any way and forgive me, if you felt it that way, but never did I intend it. Oh, and here's to it, you were correct, I was getting confused by convolutions! Thanks a lot! Cheers!!!
 
1 hour later…
14:32
5 hours ago, by Shaun
Please would someone suggest improvements for the following (as it was downvoted and I don't know why)?
5 hours ago, by Shaun
1
Q: What is the connection between algebraic groups and topoi?

ShaunI have a longstanding interest in topos theory. (See this MSE search of my questions about topos theory.) I am studying for a postgraduate research degree in linear algebraic group theory. Naturally, I wonder what connections there are between the two. A quick Google search produces this page, in...

15:31
sounds like mathoverflow material btw
I want to find $\frac{\partial}{\partial t}\int_0^t f(x+(t-s)w,s)\,ds$. Can I apply Leibniz rule? $f$ is a function of two variables?
Here consider $x,w$ to be constants.
@PNDas That’s precisely what the rule is about.
So the derivative is $f(x,t)+w\int_0^t f_t(x+(t-s)w,s)ds$?
15:49
Today Scientific American published an article about the definite integration "oracle" Cleo and an interview with Ron Gordon on the matter. Nothing at all new for those familiar with the matter - simply a popularized account.
3

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