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00:00 - 20:0020:00 - 00:00

00:07
@TedShifrin Hi Ted
I have a question about how to compute taylor polynomial
f(x = e^ (-1/x) for x>0 and 0 for x<= 0
we want to calclute the taylor poloynomial of degree 10 centered at 0
@JackOhara this is not analytic at $x=0$
and second part is if this does approximate the function well on [-1,1]
@SineoftheTime how to proceed then?
I am very bad at computation problems
and how do we test if the function is approximated well on that interval
been a while since i took analysis
I've seen a similar question on mse a while ago, let me search
okay thanks
seems strange to ask for that high degree
try to compute the first derivative and generalize
00:13
0
Q: Create a triangle whose colors are determined by the bitsums of coordinates

Akiva WeinbergerWrite a program that, for any \$n\$, generates a triangle made of hexagons as shown, \$2^n\$ to a side. The colors are to be determined as follows. We may give the triangle barycentric coordinates so that every hexagon is described by a triple \$(x,y,z)\$ with \$x+y+z=2^n-1\$. (The three corners ...

First time posting on the Code Gold place
Curious to see how it goes
@SineoftheTime thanks i will check it!
@JackOhara :)
@TedShifrin an issue came up in the quadrilateral problem when I was writing it out:
$f(\theta, \gamma) = \frac{1}{2}(ab \sin(\theta) + cd \sin(\gamma))$

$g(\theta, \gamma) = ab \cos(\theta) - cd \cos(theta) = \frac{a^2+b^2-c^2-d^2}{2}$

$Df(\theta, \gamma) = \lambda gf(\theta, \gamma) \rightarrow \frac{1}{2} [ab \cos(\theta), cd \cos(\gamma)] = \lambda[-ab \sin(\theta), cd \sin(\gamma)]$
@SineoftheTime This is not relevant.
Just compute (carefully) the first and second derivative, Jack. You'll catch on.
00:26
The only value that satisfies things is $\theta = \gamma = 0$. Kind of messes up the other expression I need to satisfy for inscribing a shape
@TedShifrin working on it!
$\tan\theta = -\tan\gamma$, @DCthe
yes that is the final inequality I got
How are you getting that they're $0$?
$0$ does not remotely satisfy the constraint equation.
drew the graph of each
00:28
You're being silly.
Think about the meaning of tangent.
How can two angles have opposite tangents?
ah...my weak geometry and trig comes to haunt again
@TedShifrin yes, it was just a remark. it's not relevant since Jack was searching for the polynomial
good night guys:)
@TedShifrin if one is the inverse of the other.
Yes, the function is very famous because its Taylor polynomial at $0$ is such a colossal failure.
Right, DC, or (since our angles are not negative)?
should riemann stieltjes integral give same value of the integral no matter the function alpha we integrating with respect to ?
@TedShifrin
00:36
Why should it not depend on $\alpha$?
so it does?
then what are we computing in this case?
i mean shouldnt be the case that we get one value of the integral no matter what function we use?
so if we take this example
f(x) = x^2
and we doing integration from 0 to 1
pick alpha to be 1+x^2 for 0<= x <= 1/2
and 3/2 +x^2 for 1/2 < x <= 1
if we just compute the integral using old riemann we get 1/3
but if we use stieltjes we get 5/8
if I did my math right
@TedShifrin how should we make sense of this?
when we doing stieltjes are we still computing area or some other measure?
Nope, not area at all. In most cases, there is not a geometric interpretation.
What are you doing?
one sec I miswrote it in latex
@TedShifrin a little bit more explanations please!
i am a bit lost with this stieltjes thing
huge mistake of confusing the inverse and reciprocal
Ok I'm not sure of the tidbit I'm missing.
00:52
There was no explanation, Jack. But think about what happens when $\alpha$ has jumps.
@DC Think lines with opposite slopes.
@TedShifrin okay thanks!
only thing that comes to mind with opposite slopes is negative reciprocal
Wrong.
sigh
It's going to be something so simple and I"m going to hate myself for not knowing it
Is there anything known about the complement to a proper subring? Like, does there have to exist an ideal of some description that only intersects the subring at 0?
01:08
the zero ideal would do that job
And do subrings have identities?
and if you're asking for a non-zero ideal, the inclusion of any non-field integral domain into its fraction field is a counter-example
(I'm assuming identities)
DC: Draw a line with slope 2 and a line with slope -2.
@TedShifrin Yeah, that's a requirement. Though, some definitions simply require that they have an element that acts like an identity. So $(4)\subseteq\mathbb{Z}_6$ might be a subring (with 4 acting as the identity)
I did do that already
I'm looking at them right now
01:11
@Thorgott Darn, good counterexample
but nothing jumps out form that notion
Look at the angles.
was doing that too and setting up their trig identities
w.r.t a right triangle
How are the angles related.
Forget trig identities. Irrelevant.
I drew a new picture this time with the triangle of slope 2 starting at the origin and the triangle of slope -2 terminating at the origin.
01:21
So the angles measured from the positive $x$-axis are related how?
Animations can sometimes help: desmos.com/calculator/qh3odeirlv
so before my computer went on the fritz. I was going to say I can perhaps name those angles $\theta$ and $\gamma$
The two angles sketched in your picture are related how?
well call the right one $\theta$ and the left one would be $\pi - \theta$, but you want the measurement from the positive x-axis for the second one
your marked angles are equal? But what you just typed is the answer to my question.
01:29
the marked angles should be equal because I drew w.r.t the same slope, they may not appear like that because of my drawing
Yes, so we are done.
(Your drawing looks good, not to worry)
but wouldn't the measurement for the second angle from the positive $x$ axis be $\theta + \pi/2$ ?
Not if it gives $\pi$ when added to $\theta$.
RIght...........time to whip out a geometry text and do an exercise or two each night....this is getting ridiculous.
01:39
On that note, it's time for my martini.
Damn...I stressed you like that....
I drove Ted to drinking.
straight or a flavoured martini?
Flavored? Yuck. Dry gin martini, with olive.
that's something us young folks do. sorry if I offended your purist ways.
I'm OK with mixed drinks, but don't call them martinis.
Root beer and rum, for me
02:05
@TedShifrin Your lectures should be called "Ted Talks"
Old news.
Ted drinks?
Good thing I didn't injure my right arm or no math for almost a month
@D.C.theIII What was the problem here? It's obvious that angles drawn by two slopes of the same magnitude (while one is positive and the other is negative) with respect to the $x$, and even $y$, axis would be the exact same. Am I not understanding the problem right?
02:23
"obvious" if one's geometry and trigonometry is strong......now on the other hand if one's skills in those fields are weak.............
Ted I'm working on the question asking to show $A = A^2$ given that $[\proj_V] = A$ directly from the definition you gave which is in terms of $b \in V$ and $b-p \in V^\perp$. I'm having trouble unraveling it
Interesting developments
5
Q: Density of extended Mersenne numbers?

mickConsider the subset of odd positive integers defined and constructed as follows by these rules : A) $1$ is in the set. B) if $x$ is in the set , then $2x + 1$ is in the set. C) if $x$ and $y$ are in the set then $xy$ is in the set. I call them extended Mersenne numbers because rule A and B alone ...

02:58
Some people have natural geometric sense, but, for other people, that's not a thing they ever developed.
Please let me know how do they get
$\begin{align} \mathbf{a}_x&=\text{cos}\phi\;\mathbf{a}_\rho-\text{sin}\phi\;\mathbf{a}_\phi\\
\mathbf{a}_y&=\text{sin}\phi\;\mathbf{a}_\rho+\text{cos}\phi\;\mathbf{a}_\phi
\end{align}$
[here](https://math.stackexchange.com/q/1445288/94817) ?
03:35
Does the existence of an inverse imply a bijection?
04:09
@D.C.theIII Think about $Ax$ and $A^2x$.
@CottonHeadedNinnymuggins A bit vague. What do you think?
I had scribbled some stuff w.r.t to that $A^2x = A(Ax)$
ted: time for more talk about homotopy inverses? :)
I doubt it …
Yes because the existence of an inverse implies the function is injective and surjective
i do too, i just love callbacks to earlier material
04:11
OK.
themes seem to come in waves, even if it's different people raising different questions.
l'hopital was really "hot" for a while but seems to have cooled off.
There are all sorts of inverses, so it’s important to make context crystal-clear.
Mapping sets to other sets was the context
I inferred that.
so if I used $b$, I would've had $Ab = p$ and we know $b - p \in V^\perp$, but I don't think $A(Ab)$ makes sense in this context
04:14
Of course it does.
What is $Ap$?
Where do you all live?
Oh if $A$ is projecting onto $V$ and $p \in V$ then $Ap \in V$
Aha. Good. What in $V$?
I guess it would be onto itself....so on to $p$
Proof?
04:23
well there is example 3 that used the projection matrix. But this is ebing done without that machinery
Use the defn only.
Well by defn, this $p$ will have the property that $p - p \in V^\perp$
Yes, but why no other option?
well it is defined as the unique vector $p$, etc, etc
If $Ap=q$, then …
04:38
$p-q \in V^\perp$....
Just multiply everything by $0$. That's what I always do
@D.C.theIII And so …?
$q = \text{proj}_V(p)$
Why must $q=p$?
05:01
I still haven't picked it up...
The vector $p-q$ lives where?
that lives in $V^\perp$
And in …
and in ???..........hmmm well $p \in V$.. and I just said $Ap = q \in V$, so that would mean this also lives in $V$
I say that because a sum of vectors from a vectors form a vector space will still be a vector in that vector space
Yes. So go on.
05:17
So $p-q \in V$ and $p-q \in V^\perp$..........
is the only vector that could be in $V$ and $V^\perp$ the $0$ vector?
granted I should know this considering all the linear algebra I've done...
and recollecting....yes this is the case.
👀
so then $p - q = 0$
That does it.
If my linear algebra isn't rusty, the only vector in both a subspace and its compliment is the $0$ vector
and as such $Ab = A(Ab)$
05:22
Not compliment. Not complement, either.
I respect the level of deduction and unravelling needed. I suspect $A = A^t$ is going to be just as fun
Orthogonal compliment? Is that the term?
I believe there is a hint.
Right. Orthogonal complEment.
Oops haha.
You know what else I remember?
$\langle Ax,y \rangle=\langle x,A^Ty \rangle$
dc3 not to fry your circuits but ya oughta remember how to prove that V intersect V^perp is {0} from more fundamental axioms. (hint: compute the length of something in V intersect V^perp in terms of the dot/inner product)
05:26
@CottonHeadedNinnymuggins Super important. It’s Ted’s favorite formula.
I know. I used it on my final too
What are yall's opinions on Jimi Hendrix?
I think he's the 2nd coolest person that ever lived. Right behind Ted Shifrin
What was your name before Cotton .. ?
@leslietownes I think I did it in a previous section of the linear algebra book I'm doing. The idea sounds familiar
My name before what? My name is a reference to the movie "Elf"
Call me Johnny
if you want
Oh, I assumed you were in this chat with a different name before.
05:36
What about donald?
Bad assumption, I guess.
I recognize the avatar and it not having such a long name beside it
Funny I can't find in my linear algebra exercises showing that $V \cap V^\perp = {0}$. I would've thought it would be in the inner product section of the text
Leslie suggested that you consider $v\cdot v$.
or $\langle v , v \rangle$. what is that $\cdot$ thing?
i recommended both of those things.
05:41
speechless
@copper.hat huh?
@TedShifrin How come? Profile picture or name?
just trolling
if we say $v = x + y$ with $x \in V$ and $y \in V^\perp$ then $\langle v, v \rangle = \langle x + y, x + y \rangle = \dots = \|x\|^2 + \|y\|^2$
yep.
pythagoras
05:57
what about it here applies?
applies to what? you're the one who brought it up
sheesh
Lol....I was trying to show the claim you suggested I do ......😪
the square of the 'diagonal' $x+y$ equals the sum of the squares of the sides $x,y$.
The equation "x² + y²- 6x+ 8y + 25 = 0" represents... ??Can anybody tell me what this 2nd degree curve represents..according to my text I know that a 2nd degree curve represents a circle when coefficients of x²= y² and coefficient of xy term = 0 and it seems like both the conditions are fulfilled here..but I also know that a general 2nd degree curve represents a pair of straight lines if determinant is equal to zero i.e. abc+2fgh-af²_bg²_ch²=0
What am I missing 😕 here
dc: i was thinking more in terms of the likely definition of V^perp , which was something of a gamble as i don't know what source you are using
06:03
i suspect there are not many points that lie on that 'curve'.
@leslietownes V^perp as in the usual sense of x in V and y in V^perp would mean $\langle x, y \rangle = 0$
@KumarShuvam consider the point $(3,-4)$.
dc: so v in V and v in V^perp means... ?
kumar: sounds like you have a lot of general tools, but maybe not an exhaustive list? the solution set of an equation like that might become more recognizable if it were rewritten. the algebraic tool here would be to separately complete the squares in x and y and move the number stuff over to the right hand side
@copper.hat basically I wanna know what this curve will represent a circle, line or a point
do as @leslietownes says. complete the square and see what is left over.
want to
my son drove the 2h to santa cruz by himself today. a bit nervr wracking for me.
06:07
this is what i got (x-3)²+ (y+4)²=0
@leslietownes errr......thier inner product is $0$?
@copper.hat how old is he?
I see....first time doing a long trek then
on his own without parental reminders to slow down and leave a few mm between you & care in front etc
@copper.hat ah I recently turned 19....
06:08
:-) its been a while since i turned 19
He had the fear of his parents banishing him from driving until he's 30 to keep him in line...
:-) we could drive by 14 or so
things were more relaxed back then
my daughter on the other hand abhors driving
@copper.hat so it represents a point right?
$(x-3)^2 + (y+4)^2 = 0$ has exactly one solution.
(in the reals)
Yes got it :)
06:12
when my daughter comes home, she takes the google bus back to work.
i wish my company had a google bus for me
@D.C.theIII yeah. V intersect V^perp = {0} is just one consequence of the definition of V^perp (and the hypothesis in an inner product space that the only thing with length zero is zero)
perks of working for an evil conglomerate
do no evil
@leslietownes to prove that was wonky. Was I right in thinking of "taking" one $v \in V$ and the other $v \in V^\perp$ since I'm allowed to say such since $v \in V \cap V^\perp$?
06:18
good night folks. i need my ugly sleep.
excellent. Well you West Coast boys kept me up, it is bed time now.
i feel like there should be a song about west coast boys
Thanks for the ayuda and I will bother you all again tomorrow with some spectral theorem questions
@copper.hat oh there is plenty..........can I interest you in a listen of a few hits from the Good Dr?
@copper.hat you mean, like, westside connection "westside slaughterhouse"?
 
4 hours later…
10:06
Hello everyone! Why $W=\{(x_1, ..., x_n) \ | \ \sum x_i=0\}$ is the same as $W = span(e_1-e_2, e_1 - e_3, ..., e_1 - e_n)$? I mean, why those things are equivalent.
@MagnusAlexander try to see what happen in $\Bbb{R}^3$
It's weird, but for some reason it doesn't even work. I took $(0,0,1), (0, 1, 0), (1,1,1)$. So we're looking for $span((0,-1, 1), (-1,-1,0))$, right?
10:22
@MagnusAlexander I think you're looking for $\text{span}((1,-1,0),(1,0,-1))$
How did you get those?
@MagnusAlexander $e_1-e_2$ and $e_1-e_3$ no?
@SineoftheTime No, this gets us vectors that I've wrote, or else I'm just going nuts xd
@MagnusAlexander are these your vectors: $e_1=(1,0,0) , e_2=(0,1,0), e_3=(0,0,1)$?
@SineoftheTime No, the third one, just for fun, I took (1,1,1)
10:30
@MagnusAlexander that's not $e_3$
the text specify $e_1-e_3$
@SineoftheTime $e_1= (0,0,1), e_3=(1,1,1) \rightarrow e_1-e_3 = (-1, -1, 0)$
@MagnusAlexander this is correct, but it's not what the text of the problem is referring to
@SineoftheTime It said $span(e_1-e_2, e1-e_3)$. In our case that is $span((0, -1, 1), (-1, -1, 0))$
@MagnusAlexander $e_1$ is not $(0,0,1)$ and $e_3$ is not $(1,1,1)$
@SineoftheTime But I set them to be that way. They are linearly independent and they form a base of $\mathbb{R}^3$.
10:36
@MagnusAlexander it doesn't matter how you see them, you must follow the definition
@SineoftheTime It seems to me that I'm following it. I took a base of $\mathbb{R}^3$ to be $e_1 = (0, 0, 1), e_2 = (0, 1, 0), e_3 = (1, 1, 1)$. Then we are taking a span with subtractions...
@MagnusAlexander the definiton of $e_i$ is $e_i=(0,\dots,0,1,0,\dots,0)$ where $1$ is in the $i$ position
@SineoftheTime I thought I could take any base of $\mathbb{R}^3$.
@MagnusAlexander see the definition in the book you're using
10:51
@SineoftheTime It is not specified in the book, since this should work for all vector spaces, and, I guess, all bases...
@SineoftheTime I see what you mean now, I thought I could take any base. Sorry for the inconvenience, and thanks for the help.
@MagnusAlexander no problem, in general look at the definition and notation, since they can change from a book to another
11:07
hi @ペガサスSeiya. how are you today?
@SineoftheTime Pretty tired
@ペガサスSeiya is your injury hurting?
@SineoftheTime not unless I move too much. Its not that bad
hope you'll recover soon
 
2 hours later…
13:32
For any set $X$, is it possible to give a metric on $X$ which would make it incomplete or complete?
14:18
@PNDas A complete metric is easy: just put the trivial metric on the space. You can do that for any set.
For an incomplete metric, you need an infinite number of points, since you need at least one Cauchy sequence which fails to have a limit. But you can probably just pick out some countable sequence, map it to $(1/n)_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$, then do something silly like putting the trivial metric on everything that's left.
This is unlikely to be compatible with any other structure you might want on your set, but if all you are concerned with is the metric structure, something like this should work.
Does the consective ratios of higher order derivatives of a function give the analytic continuation of that function somehow?
$s = (2 + 14\,i)$
$$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}
\left(
\left[
1-
\left(
\sum _{k=1}^n \frac{(-1)^{k-1} \binom{n-1}{k-1}}{\zeta(\tfrac{k}{n}+s)}
\Bigg/
\sum _{k=1}^n \frac{(-1)^{k-1} \binom{n-1}{k-1}}{\zeta(\tfrac{k}{n}+s+\tfrac{1}{n})}
\right)
\right]^{-1}
+\frac1n + s
\right)=\text{1:st non-trivial Riemann zeta zero }$$
where $Re(s)>1$, $n>0$ and $k>0$.
and therefore there the analytic continuation in the zeta function is not needed. So does this mean that the limit somehow uses/involves analytic continuation?
 
1 hour later…
15:46
Is it bad to star someone's message? When should I star a message? I put a star on Xander's message because then it'll be easy to find it.
 
1 hour later…
16:50
@PNDas that’s a fine use for the stars. If it’s a comment that you think many people will find helpful, then a star is appropriate. Sometimes people use stars to support a comment that they really agree with.
It has become an upvote
You can look back at all the starred comments and see what people have done in the past.
@PNDas I did not yet find out the logic when a star is considered as OK and when it is considered as a "like". One of many things that are unlucky handled on this site.
 
2 hours later…
18:38
hi @TedShifrin
can you help me with a problem?
What sort of problem?
computing a fundamental group :(
What is your issue?
i am in chat
@Shinrin-Yoku Congratulations!
18:42
lol thanks
We have on $\Bbb{R}$ the following base for the topology: $B=\{\emptyset, (a,a+1)_{a\in \Bbb{Z}}\}$ and we have to find $\pi_1(X,1/2)$
$X$ is $X=(\Bbb{R},U_B)$
@TedShifrin. one thing that has been irritating me to no extent is the defintion of arc length
compared to the definition of a riemann integral
Darn, @Sine. Why does your class love these idiotic topologies?
Too vague a comment, @Shin. What is irritating you?
the thing is to calculate riemann integral we take upper and lower sums to "squeeze" out the area
!!!
i am not involved here
warning to all:
there is no involvement of my part in this
i don't want trouble with anyone
18:45
Oops. When two names have the same first four letters, you get pinged.
but in arclength there is no squeezing @TedShifrin
@TedShifrin Don't ask me :'(. It was in a past exam and we never did it such example (i.e. fundamental groups of spaces with a specific basepoint)
you just take rectifications
What is a pre-order that is not reflexive nor irreflexive?
@shintuku don't speak until your lawyer arrives
18:47
which is particulary problematic for me
@Shinrin You are still taking the sup. It is not defined as an integral. You have to prove that the length is an integral in some situations.
I know taking sup, but why not take inf from some angle to squeeze out the length, you only have a lower approximation not an upper one by taking sup
@Sine I don't find these questions interesting as actual geometric topology questions. But approach like yesterday. Understand what functions into the space are continuous.
@Shinrin If arclength bothers you, wait until you get to surface area. Then you can't approach it with piecewise-linear approximations at all.
I am not talking about integral def of arclength at all rather comparing defintions of area and length
@TedShifrin me neither. thank you for the advice
18:50
Can someone please help with this question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/4638649/…
If its so ok just to take lower limits why care about upper riemann sum at all @TedShifrin?
The point is that the area/volume definition is working in the top dimension of the space. Lengths are not (nor surface area, etc., for lower-dimensional subspaces).
You know better than that, Shinrin. That's a silly question.
Then why dont we take upper limit for arcs?
and consider the length from the upper arc length and the lower arc length...
if equal then good and arclength is defined
So you're totally ignoring the explanation I gave you.
But go ahead and investigate this. How are you going to get upper arclengths? Tell me.
its a good point for things like circles you can but i guess there are weird curves out there
18:55
You don't need a weird curve. How do you even define a "circumscribed" polygonal approximation?
yes good point, by considering tangents on convex curves maybe...
What does tangent even mean for a curve?
differentiable convex curve
So we're no longer defining arclength of a (say) continuous curve.
yes good point. very good point. I guess thats all thats there to it then, it can be done for some curves but not alll
19:00
If you want to play with differentiable convex curves, then write down a definition and prove that you'll get the right answer. But this is surely not a reasonable approach in general.
But you should eventually learn about things like Hausdorff measures for non-top-dimensional subsets.
yes thanks for the help @TedShifrin I plan to learn about fractals and hausdorff dimension in the future
anyway have a nice day all in chat. see you later
See ya.
in showing $A = A^t$, in your hint about writing $x$ and $y$ as the sum of vectors in $V$ and $V^\perp$, do you mean write $x$ and $y$ individually or $v = x + y$ with $x \in V$ and $y \in V^\perp$?
19:18
Your question doesn't make sense. Aren't we considering $Ax\cdot y$?
Yes which as itself equals $y^tAx$
Whatever. We're trying to prove it equals what?
trying to prove it equals $x \cdot Ay$
Anyone know some good sites that you can practice your knowledge of an intro to diff eq course
Right, DC (although you still need one more step to be done).
19:24
ooh I didn't know khan academy had diff eq, gonna check that out
So I haven't used the definition of projection yet. Let's call $Ax = p$.
so $x - p \in V^\perp$
Which is why I told you to write $x = u+v$ with ....
yea that's what I was asking initially. Maybe I phrased it wrong. So what I have written down I used $z_1, w_1 \in V$ and $z_2, w_2 \in V^\perp$ such that $ x = z_1 + z_2$ and $y = w_1 + w_2$.
OK.
So now what are $Ax\cdot y$ and $x\cdot Ay$?
writing those out now.
$Ax \cdot y = Az_1 \cdot w_1 + Az_2 \cdot w_1$ and $x \cdot Ay = z_1 \cdot Aw_1 + z_2 \cdot Aw_2$
Which reduces to $Ax \cdot y = Az_1 \cdot w_1$ and $x \cdot Ay = z_1 \cdot Aw_1$
19:41
But you're not done "reducing."
I'm rewriting the transpose of one rigt now
It is the only thing that would fly, but I don't feel fully on board with it: $z_1 \cdot Aw_1 = w_1^t A^tz_1 = A^tz_1 \cdot w_1$
I guess I feel it doesn't fly because I'm thinking of $A$ as not necessarily being a square matrix
Well, of course it's square. But you're not thinking.
I did something wrong there?
I didn't even look at it.
Well I concluded that the only way that $Ax \cdot y = x \cdot Ay$ is if $Az_1 \cdot w_1 = A^tz_1 \cdot w_1$.
19:52
Stop and think. How are the $z_i$, $w_i$ related to $A$?
Well $Az_1 = z_1$ and same for $w_1$
oh...very nice. So using that relationship I now have equality.
so as a result $Ax \cdot y = x \cdot Ay$, now manipulating $x \cdot Ay$ I do eventually get to $A^tx \cdot y$
But make sure you justify why you can conclude $A=A^\top$. (This was probably an exercise way back in chapter 1.)
To be able to do this, the middle step was having to establish equality of the two objects
19:59
@leslietownes was thinking something more melodious...
00:00 - 20:0020:00 - 00:00

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