If f is given as you have written it, one would assume its domain to be all of R in which case, as per the definition of the derivative, one would check if the limit $\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}$ exists. This certainly exists if the left hand and right derivatives at 0 exist.
If however the domain of f is given an [0, 1], say then the derivative at 0 would stand for right hand derivative at that point so you -1= f'(0), etc.