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03:57
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/File:Bertrand.jpg Bertrand throwing up math gang signs
He was very ahead of is time
04:17
the part of grading which drives me up a wall (aside from sheer volume) : deciding on a rubric
sometimes it works out easily
sometimes...not
05:01
@Semiclassical I love graded rings
"modules" I mean
lol
I see you're applying them to rubrik's cube
:D
@Semiclassical you could always pay me to automate your grading process
employing lots of AI to recognize handwriting
@ParamanandSingh hi, I left adjoint to you.
0
Q: Could you suggest a textbook for learning basic properties of spectrum of closed operators?

Unknown xI wish to learn the very basic properties of the spectrum of Closed operators. I may use these properties in the research in the Fluid dynamics/Differential equations. My attempts:- I searched in google. Search was disappointing. I asked in Chat. I couldn't find the book. I searched in the follo...

@Unknownx what was disappointing about your google search?
@Unknownx I can teach you
first you tell me (quiz) what a closed operator is
I will use the Socratic method
Rubrik is this: 1,2,3 puff, pass.
5 puffs, A+
I can preach to you some math, you can teach me, my guru
@Unknownx how would you show that $\sum_{d \mid p_n\#}(-1)^{\Omega(d)}\sum_{r^2 = 1 \pmod d} \lfloor\dfrac{x - r}{d} \rfloor$ does not vanish eventually?
Could you somehow use differential equations?
Because derivatives of polynomials show up in Hensel's lemma
maybe the connection is stronger than that
@DLeftAdjointtoU A closed operator is an operator $T$ such that if $\{x_n\} ⊂ \text{Dom}(T)$ converges to $x ∈ X$ and $\{Tx_n\}$ converges to $y ∈ X$, then $x ∈ \text{Dom}(T) $and $Tx = y .
here though, $p_n\# = p_1 p_2 \cdots p_n$ (primorial)
Oh cool. Your turn
What is Dom($A$)?
domain of A
sorry
T
05:11
Oh, just say $\text{dom}(A)$ please
dom(T)
Rewrite, ples
I have to see it completely to come up with the next part of the lesson plan
What you're missing, etc
Or could use guidance on
What space is this?
$\text{dom}T \subset ?$
What is the ambient space?
A closed operator is an operator $T$ such that if $\{x_n\} \subset \text{Dom}(T)$ converges to $x ∈ X$ and $\{Tx_n\}$ converges to $y ∈ X$, then $x ∈ \text{Dom}(T) $and $Tx = y .
how to render latex?
05:13
Okay, but what are we working in?
Vector space?
Real or complex?
You have to declare these things
@DLeftAdjointtoU Hilbert space
@DLeftAdjointtoU complex
Okay, define that: it's a complex inner product space, such that?
Just give me a sentence or two
to check your understanding
@DLeftAdjointtoU Yes. It is a complex complete inner product(Hilbert space).
Complete with respect to the metric induced by the norm $|\cdot|$, which is?
I am interested in Hilbert space.
05:16
Okay now that we have that covered for the most part
What is the motivation behind finding closed operator spectra?
QM?
$d(x,y)=sqrt{\langle x-y,x-y\rangle}$
What applications does it have? Because if you have no goal or motivation, it could even be because they're beautiful,
then it's harder to motivate to keep studying
I see, perfect
@DLeftAdjointtoU yes. I wish to do a research in Mathematical Physics. My professor assign me to learn this topic.
Okay, they didn't mention why they were cool?
@DLeftAdjointtoU Most probably, I will move to Quantum mechanics
05:18
Cool
Okay, next
is define spectra
for such $T$
You must know this definition by heart, but it might take a few weeks
@DLeftAdjointtoU $\text{Spec}(T)=\{\lambda\in \mathbb C: T-\lambda I \text{ is not invertible}\}$
@DLeftAdjointtoU :(
Okay, now doesn't that immediately imply $\text{Spec}(T) = \{ \lambda \in \Bbb{C}: \det(T - \lambda I) = 0\}$ at least for finite dimensional $\text{dom}(T)$?
I know only basic properties and definitions in Hilbert space.
@DLeftAdjointtoU hello! I will need the original matrix as well and not just the adjoint to do anything useful (I may be wrong here as I am no linear algebra expert). Nice username!!
I will pass you meatrices and adjoints
:D
@Unknownx I found what you need to study first
In mathematics, the Fredholm determinant is a complex-valued function which generalizes the determinant of a finite dimensional linear operator. It is defined for bounded operators on a Hilbert space which differ from the identity operator by a trace-class operator. The function is named after the mathematician Erik Ivar Fredholm. Fredholm determinants have had many applications in mathematical physics, the most celebrated example being Gábor Szegő's limit formula, proved in response to a question raised by Lars Onsager and C. N. Yang on the spontaneous magnetization of the Ising model. =...
Because invertibility probably has a condition stated in terms of that determinant
So you take the definition of spectra, and break it down into equivalent statements
05:25
@DLeftAdjointtoU Thank you. Let me read it.
I take that back, I'm not seeing any immediate $\det T = 0$ thing related to that
@DLeftAdjointtoU Hai, I didn't do the exterior products. I have only basic knowledge. Is there anything like weak convergence related theorem. For compact operator in a hilbert space, Compact operator maps a weakly convergent sequence to strongly convergent sequence, 0 is always in the spectrum of compact operator.
I need such a basic results.
So you need a book on functional analysis?
Yes. Which covers basic properties of Spectrum of closed operators.
Start reading on page 252
Read 5 pages
I will review it and we'll meet back here in 1 hour
If there are exercises
skip them and then we'll go over them together
You will read through this more thoroughly at a later date
05:33
okay
Thank you very much:)
@Unknownx which is more general: Hilbert or Banach space?
(pop quiz)
@DLeftAdjointtoU I didn't get what a Banach Algebra is?
@DLeftAdjointtoU Banach is general
In mathematics, more specifically in functional analysis, a Banach space (pronounced [ˈbanax]) is a complete normed vector space. Thus, a Banach space is a vector space with a metric that allows the computation of vector length and distance between vectors and is complete in the sense that a Cauchy sequence of vectors always converges to a well-defined limit that is within the space. Banach spaces are named after the Polish mathematician Stefan Banach, who introduced this concept and studied it systematically in 1920–1922 along with Hans Hahn and Eduard Helly.Maurice René Fréchet was the first...
I don't want to learn more general stuff. I don't wish to learn abstract items.
Click that to see the deifniion
It's not super abstract
05:39
I wish to learn the essence for application.
It's only one-two axioms less
@DLeftAdjointtoU Okay
Banach = complete normed space.
Sometimes generalizing a slight bit makes it faster / easier
@DLeftAdjointtoU Banach space I know. Algebra???
@Koro I know this defintion
05:40
In mathematics, more specifically in functional analysis, a Banach space (pronounced [ˈbanax]) is a complete normed vector space. Thus, a Banach space is a vector space with a metric that allows the computation of vector length and distance between vectors and is complete in the sense that a Cauchy sequence of vectors always converges to a well-defined limit that is within the space. Banach spaces are named after the Polish mathematician Stefan Banach, who introduced this concept and studied it systematically in 1920–1922 along with Hans Hahn and Eduard Helly.Maurice René Fréchet was the first...
Click that
it goes to Algebra
So what is your doubt?
essentially, there is defined/definable a ring-like multiplication
that distributes
And that is also a topological monoid $(X, \cdot)$ i.e.
@DLeftAdjointtoU okay. Thanks
I will ping you, when I complete the reading.
is that okay?
That would make $(B, +, -, \cdot, ...)$ into a topological ring or algebra
That just means all arithmetic operations are continuous
05:42
Oh I see. You want to know Banach Algebra. I don't yet know that.
with respect to the norm-induced metric space
@Unknownx yes, let's chat in a bit
@DLeftAdjointtoU okay
Let's just do one page though
The bottom of pg 252
05:44
okay
+ pg 253
Also, try to understand the Proof somewhat
I don't know if you can do this without writing stuff down. It helps me to write it as I'm reading
@DLeftAdjointtoU okay.
@DLeftAdjointtoU compliment means the set compliment. right?
@DLeftAdjointtoU Hello, I am able to read and understand the logic. I mean I am able to understand the proof. But I am not able to understand the application :9
:(
$e = I$ here
05:56
@DLeftAdjointtoU yes
I would say your first goal should be to understand Theorem 10.7
If it refers to something else, we'll start there instead, and so on
but it looks like it's not too terrible of a proof
First step, is prove to me that $s_n = I + x + x^2 + \dots + x^n$ is Cauchy
By using $|x^n| \leq |x|^n$.
That's by $|ab|\leq |a||b|$ in a Banach algebra, basically $|\cdot|$ is continuous, so this is an equivalent condition to that
@DLeftAdjointtoU yes. I understood the theorem
Guys if $g(x,y,z) = (u,v)$ and I want to find $\partial_{x} (f \circ g)$, it should be $\partial_x (f \circ g) = \partial_u f \partial_x u + \partial_v f \partial_x v$ right?
@Lemon what is $f$ here? $\mathbb{R}^2\to \mathbb{R}$?
@Semiclassical Yes.
06:09
seems right, yeah
@DLeftAdjointtoU $||x^{-1}h||<(1/2) \implies e-(-x^{-1}h)$ is invertible.
Right?
x is invertible implies $x+h$ is invertible. product of two invertible elemnts are invertible.
07:04
@DLeftAdjointtoU But, results are abstract type. I think it has no use in reallity. :(
07:21
Why don't I have a hat?
07:42
If $f$ and $g$ are differentiable maps such that $| f(x) - g(y) | < \epsilon$ for any $\epsilon$, does this also imply there is a $\delta>0$ such that $|x - y| < \delta$
If the answer is no, does the result change if $g$ is now the identity map?
08:30
Now I'm wearing a sun!
 
4 hours later…
12:34
hey there chat
 
1 hour later…
13:38
The covariant derivative on a tensor field behaves similarly to the Lie derivative on a tensor field.
 
2 hours later…
15:28
$f(x) = 2 - |x|$.

We can define $f$ with cases in three different ways:

$f(x) = \begin{cases} 2 - x& x \geq 0\\
2 + x & x < 0\end{cases} = \begin{cases} 2 - x& x > 0\\
2 + x & x \leq 0\end{cases} = \begin{cases} 2 - x& x > 0\\
2 + x & x < 0 \\2 & x = 0\end{cases}$.

Using only these cases, differentiating the piecewise function $f$ gives us:

$f'(x) = \begin{cases} -1& x \geq 0\\
1 & x < 0\end{cases} = \begin{cases} -1& x > 0\\
1 & x \leq 0\end{cases} = \begin{cases} -1& x > 0\\
If f is given as you have written it, one would assume its domain to be all of R in which case, as per the definition of the derivative, one would check if the limit $\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}$ exists. This certainly exists if the left hand and right derivatives at 0 exist.
If however the domain of f is given an [0, 1], say then the derivative at 0 would stand for right hand derivative at that point so you -1= f'(0), etc.
"one would check if the limit $\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{f(x)-f(0)}{x-0}$ exists" why would you check if that exists?

All of the representations are valid, if you only took one representation using cases, for example $f(x) = \begin{cases} 2 - x& x \geq 0\\
2 + x & x < 0\end{cases}$, then $f'(x) = \begin{cases} -1& x \geq 0\\
1 & x < 0\end{cases}$.
This would give you the result $f'(0) = -1$ which is wrong, but you wouldn't have any way of knowing, all the operations you did are valid, you are allowed to piecewise differentiate
Since one would arrive at this wrong solution like this, where is the step you wouldn't be allowed to take or would have to be cautious about?
16:21
@ILikeMathematics Because that's the definition of derivative at a point (0 in this case). No you can't conclude f'(0)=-1. Why? Because it is not known if $f$ is differentiable at $0$.
16:36
@Koro But then you also couldn't right away conclude that $f'(2) = -1$ because it is not known if $f$ is differentiable at $2$ yet
How to formally prove that if f:I-R has intermediate value property then f(I) is an interval
16:58
@nickbros123 first find the definition of an interval of R
17:08
In Bartle and sherbert the definition is If a,b belong to R, then the open interval with a and b as endpoints is (a,b)={x: a<x<b}. This suffices right?
{x in R: a<x<b}
if f:I -> R, what is the definition of f(I)
Set f(I)={f(x) x in I}
given the intermediate value theorem, what is another definition for f(I) if f is continuous?
17:20
mm, you will need the other possibilities for 'interval' too. this is kind of a weird exercise, in that the 'right' definition of interval for this purpose is basically the intermediate value property.
@ILikeMathematics Yes, one can't conclude that right away. But it is an exercise to prove that polynomials are differentiable everywhere. Knowing this one concludes f'(2)=-1. But note that it is different from making conclusion at x=0.
Leslie: I distinguish between rays and intervals. To me, an interval is with real values as end points and ray is what one would call an unbounded interval.
sure. but, i wasn't talking about 'interval' in any ideal sense, but rather what 'interval' needs to be for that particular exercise to be true. :D
i don't like reverse-engineering definitions from assuming that an exercise is properly posed, but, it seems like that is called for here.
@shintuku another definition? Range?
My teacher basically treated IVP without teaching definitions of intervals, and he just gave this theorem, and swiftly moved on
the intermediate value theorem implies that there is another way to write the set f(I) if f is continuous
side note, this seems to come up an awful lot in chat. there's 'interval' in the sense of an enumerated list of types of sets that one calls an interval (whether each endpoint is included, whether each endpoint can be +infty or -infty). then there's 'connected subset of R' or 'convex subset of R' or any number of order theoretic characterizations, which all amount to the same thing - the same enumerated list - but are often easier to work with and prove things about.
and for some reason, apparently, textbooks don't want to discuss this.
i note that nobody's asked what I is. if I = [0,1] or any closed interval, then you can definitely simplify the exercise if f is assumed continuous, because then only one 'kind' of interval is possible.
17:31
@nickbros123 so, we know f(I) = {f(x): x in I}. but this is very general, this doesn't care about whether the function is continuous or not. the intermediate value theorem implies we can write this differently, in the case that f is continuous
but if f is assumed only to have the IVP, more kinds of intervals are possible.
I think Munkres' discusses this while discussing order topologies: rays form subbasis for the order topology on a simply ordered set X.
@Koro Thank you.
@ILikeMathematics you're welcome. Glad that you found that helpful. :)
@shintuku there's another definition of f(I) for continuous f? Should I use the the definition of IVP itself?
17:36
there's a stricter possible meaning for f(I) in the case where IVT holds
@nickbros123 can you write a set-theoretical statement for what the intermediate value theorem states?
((I should have said open rays form subbasis for the order topology on a simply ordered set.)
The ivp says if a,b in I, and some r lies between f(a) and f(b) , then there is x in I so that r=f(x). So I can rewrite this like r belongs to f(I) ?
Ok sry that's wrong
I would have to define a new interval for f(a) to f(b) right
if IVT holds for f, then what is the set-theoretical statement for "f(I) takes any value between f(a) and f(b)"?
Does it make sense to teach rings and modules in semester 1 and group theory in semester 2?
I don't see any justification of doing so.
@shintuku I'm confused with regards to f(I), what we are concerned about is only the set of (a,b) for which we are saying some x exists in this set so that r=f(x) for some r belongs to f(I) ?
17:54
for any r belonging to f(I)
Yes, sorry, for any r in f(I), but the set I is (a,b) right?
Then is it right to say f(I) is a subset of ((f(a),f(b))
sorry, what is f(a) if the domain of f does not include a?
more generally, even if f is continuous, and [c,d] is a subset of the domain of f, it is not generally true that {f(x): x in [c,d]} = [f(c),f(d)]
for example because a continuous function can assume the same value in two places without being constant in between those two places
Oh, you're right, i got the definition wrong
The problem vanishes on closed sets right? Cos you can find atleast one r between f(a) and f(b) (closed set)
18:05
heh, my bad the mentioned interval is closed, to make sense of f(a) and f(b)
So on the closed set I=[a,b] the function is defined. For all r belonging to [f(a),f(b)] there exist x belongs to I such that f(x)=r
I can say this?^
yes although i don't know that it is particularly helpful to single out [f(a),f(b)] when the exercise is asking about f(I)
also some minor annoyances around how you interpret that notation if f(a) happens to be greater than or equal to f(b)
Since there exist x in I for every r in [f(a),f(b)] so that f(x)=r, can I say f(I) supre of [f(a),f(b)] ?
Superset*
18:24
sure
18:36
@Koro Yes. I wrote a text doing rings/fields first, group theory next.
There are sound pedagogical reasons, but I would not do that for graduate students.
18:52
@TedShifrin But why is that so?
Why I find it difficult to digest is because if groups are taught first, then 1) the students will find it 'easy' as a group has only 1 binary operation. 2)Definition of ring will then become shorter (as one is now licensed to use the word 'abelian'.
@onepotatotwopotato Not quite. They coincide for scalar functions but $C^{\infty}$-linearity $\nabla_{f_1X_1+f_2X_2}Y=f_1\nabla_{X_1}Y+f_2\nabla_{X_2}Y$ is an important difference
3) Isomorphism theorems follow from the similar theorems from gt.
but as you said; and as per my next sem's syllabus, there must have been some reason behind it.
Rings — particularly commutative rings — generalize one’s experiences with integers and polynomials. Quotients are totally intuitive. Normal subgroups and quotient groups require far more sophistication.
But then quotient rings should not be covered in such a course? For, they will also require at least the same sophistication that normal subgroups would do. Isn't that right?
No, it’s totally wrong.
19:04
the 'only one operation, therefore easier' is a thing, but maybe more with students who have some degree of familiarity or comfort with working with systems of axioms already. which definitely isn't everybody. (and the theory of the integers, including ring stuff, is definitely a big part of group theory, e.g. for properties of cyclic and abelian groups.) two operations can be more intuitive than one.
Working with modular arithmetic is easy. Understanding $F[x]/(f(x))$ as $F(\alpha)$ is intuitive. Fill in the necessary things.
Normality of a subgroup is either total symbol-pushing or else conceptually challenging.
more structure often makes things easier. fields even easier than rings, for example.
Oh I see. So it is because it probably is more intuitive. I was thinking based on no. of operations.
finite groups are really weird. (finite rings are too)
I’ve taught it to undergrads both ways, and I stand by my pedagogical decision to write the book the way maybe only 30% want to teach it. Sadly, many algebra courses are just formal symbol-pushing.
19:13
finite groups are cool
moreso than infinite ones
Yuck.
Lie groups rule.
Lie groups suck because they're related to Lie algebras
I'd love to like them, but guilt by association is too strong
ssi=iff :)
@Thorgott Can you expand more about your hate towards Lie algebras? :P
You’re just throwing your highest weight around.
19:27
I have a problem with Lie groups too, though. Most physics books are ambiguous when dealing with Lie groups
root systems are by far the ugliest piece of algebra I've had to lay my eyes upon and they will never recover
the fields of Lie algebras and representation theory are the most unintuitive and least accessible branches of algebra and I will die on that hill
That's not comforting to read for someone studying representation theory right now...
@leslietownes Maybe I am mistaken, but why do fields carry more structures than rings?
Although I'm not sure I need to delve too much into the topic
yai i did not mean it in any formal sense. i just mean, if you add more to the pile of things you assume about something ("structure"), sometimes things get easier and not harder.
i'm not one of those people who says structure (or the perennial favorites natural or canonical) with any specific meaning behind them.
19:35
this is actually a fairly subtle issue, I'd say
The category of fields is a full subcategory of that of rings.
I don't think there's universal agreement on how to formalize what a field really is, as opposed to a ring.
part of koro's intuition was, the minute you bring in more axioms, things automatically get more complicated. all i meant was, not necessarily. add "G is finite and order 3" to group theory and it gets a lot simpler.
By the way this is one the ambiguous things I find written about Lie groups
it's an infamous weirdness that the theory of fields is not an algebraic theory
an interesting example, I think, is trying to internalize the notion of a field in the category of topological spaces
since we agree on what a topological field is, and it's not just a topological ring that is a field
"inversion" here is not really an axiomatic condition on the algebraic structure, but is expressed through a structural morphism $K\setminus\{0\}\rightarrow K\setminus\{0\}$
so that's a case in which I would argue fields do have more structure than rings
19:40
would any of this have started if i had used a word like 'rigidity,' or 'information,' instead of 'structure'? i need to know so that i don't trip over this next time.
The category of topological spaces is very bad. Even if you replace it by a very good alternative such as a topos, there does not seem to be a good definition of internal fields.
You always mess up, leslie, regardless.
that does seem to be the rule.
well, the definition given in the category of topological spaces is very much sensible
there's no debate on what a topological field is
it just isn't clear how well the pattern generalizes
I mean, it does not have a very rich theory of internal language, in comparison to topoi.
It is not locally presentable.
19:46
sure
 
1 hour later…
21:10
@Thorgott in the universal algebra sense?
in the sense of Lawvere theory
but that may or may not be related, I'm not knowledgeable enough to tell you
21:37
it ends up, as it must, at lawvere theory
22:06
hi everyone, could you please take a look at my proof and correct it if it needs
I'm not very strong at proofs but this is my attempt.
22:19
so far so good. i might include more detail about why the result is in R^n. (you're implicitly using the fact that you don't leave R in each component, i.e., that the set R from which each component is taken is also convex.) not the most interesting detail in the world, but a detail nonetheless.
@leslietownes thanks for the feedback. I think each element z_i is in R so z should be in R^n. That is why I stopped
yeah, i would just add in that observation, each one of these components z_i is in R, so z is too. it almost feels like it goes without saying, but it wouldn't go without saying if, for example, R^n were replaced with a subset of R^n with a more complicated definition.
Why is it true in one dimension? Somewhere we need to prove something.
as a side note, there's definitely a type of definitions-checking exercise that is pedagogically maybe suboptimal for not giving the person enough to do. i might put this exercise in that category.
unless this class is littered with 'but wait, is R closed under addition' type checking, this kind of thing sort of comes out of left field.
I don't like the exercise, personally.
22:31
But other than saying "it's true because it's true," there has to be something to do.
I don't see that writing it out in coordinates does anything.
as you say, in R^1 there's definitely something to prove, but, i'm guessing this is arising in the kind of class where R having addition and scalar multiplication operations is assumed and not proved.
We know that $\Bbb R^n$ is a vector space, so is closed under scalar multiplication and addition.
Where is this exercise coming from?
@TedShifrin I'm reading elementary linear programming by Bernard Kolman and Robert E. Beck
2nd
@TedShifrin so my proof is not convincing? :<
I don't see why looking at components is necessary. I would just say that $\Bbb R^n$, being a vector space, is closed under scalar multiplication and addition. Therefore, $\lambda x, (1-\lambda)y\in\Bbb R^n$ and so their sum is ...
22:38
this reminds me a bit of the kind of physics class where the instructor spends 30 min on some more complicated than necessary proof of the schwarz inequality in R^n before, like, doing all kinds of unjustified stuff with unbounded operators
e.g., weird place for formalism, or at least this kind of formalism
Yeah, it would be a better exercise to prove that the unit ball is convex and that a punctured ball is not.
@TedShifrin your approach makes sense but my understanding for proofs is the fact that we need to show all steps or may be I don't know which crucial steps are necessary to be shown.
the details that are necessary to be shown may depend on formalism that the book maybe hasn't even bothered to set up.
You have no more steps than I do. Why is it any more obvious in $\Bbb R$ than in $\Bbb R^n$? As leslie and I said, this is a stupid exercise.
e.g. are the usual properties of the vector space operations on R^n known, or are they defined in terms of the R^1 operations (whose properties are assumed known), or what.
22:43
I guess they want to start to develop the notion of convexity for piecewise-linear subsets of $\Bbb R^n$.
The authors didn't provide the answer so I'm guessing my solution is stupid. :)
why the exercise is not good?
Students have trouble proving totally obvious things. What do we assume is known and what is not? That's what leslie's been saying.
Your solution is no more stupid than mine. I think you should do a different exercise.
Thank you so much both of you for being informative and helpful. I clearly see your points now.

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