$T$ is a linear operator on a complex inner product space. If $T$ is self adjoint, then $\langle T(x), x \rangle $ is real for all $x \in V$. I'm trying to prove this, but my problem is I don't know what it would mean for $\langle T(x), x \rangle $ to be real. I've seen a proof which is pretty straightforward, but I don't understand why that shows the value is real
Can someone tell how does the epsilon delta definition work actually I understood the definition But May I know what was the thought process of Cauchy when defining limits that way?
Can I claim that we can't find delta from the graph? Is such proofs allowed?
The limit of a function as it approaches 'a' is 'L' if and only if as x approaches 'a' from both sides (values greater than or less than 'a') f(x) apporaches L
What does this statement mean? If f is continuous on [a,b] then f is bounded above on [a,b] that is there is some number N such that f(x)<=N for all x in [a,b]
Use $(a) \subset \Bbb{Z}$ to mean ideal and $(a) + x$ a coset.
$$
(6) \cap((5) \uplus ((5) + 2 )\uplus((5)+3)) \cap (5+1,7^2-1)
$$
is non-empty because there exist the twin prime averages $12$ and $18$ in the set.
Define $\mu(A) = \max \ \{x - y: x , y\in A, x \lt z \lt y \implies z \notin A\}$. ...
Hello, is the following correct: if I have a commutative ring R and denote it's maximal ideal p. Then the localization of R at p is R_p which is a local ring right? Because the maximal ideal of R_p is pR_p. But is it true that an element in pR_p is c*(r/b) where c is in p, r is in R and b is in R\p.
@KarlKroningfeld perfect thanks! No there are no reservations, but I only wanted to be sure since we haven't discussed this in the lecture. The prof only said that R_p is a local ring nothing more
@KarlKroningfeld about your fun fact. So I know that since pR_p is a maximal ideal of the ring R_p then R_p/pR_p is a field. but how do we see that it's the field of fractions of the integral domain R/p?
I had the following definition of a field of fractions: If R is an integral domain and S=A\{0} then S^{-1}A is the field of fractions of A
@Wave Briefly, you can localize the exact sequence of $R$-module $0\to p\to R \to R/p\to 0$, using the multiplicative set $S=R\setminus p$. That leads to $0\to pR_p\to R_p\to S^{-1}(R/p)\to 0$. Then, one shows that $S^{-1}(R/p)$ is the field of fractions of $R/p$.
@KarlKroningfeld sorry for the stupid questions I don't really understand tensoring yet. I mean I take the exact sequence you gave above and then tensor by S^{-1}R. for example I then get S^{-1}R\otimes p right? But how do I get to pR_p
Do we only need the field of fractions in the definition of an integrally closed domain since this is the smallest field R can be embedded in?
So I mean we could take any larger field K in which R can be embedded and then also say that R is integrally closed if R is an integral domain and the integral closure in K is R
Hi, I'm trying to find values for x and y such that x-y <0 and -x+y <0 for x, y \in R. when I sum these two equations up, I got 0 + 0 < 0 which is impossible, does this mean that I don't have a solution here by any real numbers?
@user777 sure 0+0<0 is impossible. In my opinion also your argument is correct because it's like a prove by contradiction which isn't really neccessary but it is correct in my opinion
Does someone see an elegant way to show that for a real eigenvector $v$ of a real symmetric square matrix $A$ to an eigenvalue $\lambda$, the matrix $\begin{pmatrix}0 & v^\top \\ -v & A - \lambda I\end{pmatrix}$ is invertible? My only solution is to show with a rather ugly argument that the linear map induced by this matrix is injective.
Maybe there is a formula for the determinant here? I checked Wikipedia's article on block matrix determinants, but that didn't help.
@abenthy yes, if $u$ is another eigenvector of $A$ with eigenvalue $\lambda$, then using Gram-Schmidt, we can find $u'$ perpendicular to $v$ which is still an eigenvector of $A$ with eigenvalue $\lambda$.
Then $\begin{pmatrix}0\\u'\end{pmatrix}$ is in the null space of the matrix.
How will you deal with a human who is declassifying all kinds of CIA shit across the planet and fucking up mathematical integrity and had no intent to remorse from his actions https://www.deviantart.com/galaxystarlights17/art/I-m-just-glow-up-and-relax-918424242 ?
This is the second time I answer question, they read it then delete the question. All the time spend answering is wasted. math.stackexchange.com/questions/4467369/… something should be done about this. It is waste of time here to answer questions.
This is very rude. I will not bother answering questions any more on this forum.
@Nasser like I mean, no one is telling you that you have to answer questions. Maybe they don't like your answers? Maybe they are cheating on an exam? Who knows.
If I have $X \sim MVN(\theta, I)$ and I want to calculate $E[f(||X||^2)]$, can I use the laplace approximation to say this is approximately $f(||\theta||^2)$
Let's go through some questions in order and see where it takes us. [Or skip to the bit about complex numbers below if you can't be bothered.]
What are natural numbers?
It took quite some evolution, but humans are blessed by their ability to notice that there is a similarity between the situati...
sorry this is may be a stupid question but what are all the prime ideals of $\Bbb{C}[X]$? I mean it is a principal ideal domain so every ideal is generated by one element. I also know that all maximal ideals are $(P)$ where $P\in \Bbb{C}[X]$ is irreducible. Hence these are for sure also prime ideals. But then (0) is also a prime ideal. Now are there some further prime ideals?
@TedShifrin Aha so you mean if for example I take the ideal (X^2-4), then I can take the polynomials [X+2] and [X-2] then clearly [X+2][X-2]\in (X^2-4) but neither [X+2] nor [X-2]\in (X^2-4).
Hi! When we are given a sum $\frac{26}{5} (\frac{-3}{10}) / (\frac{-67}{10}) \frac{1}{2}$, isn't it right that we take as $\frac{26}{5} (\frac{-3}{10}) (\frac{-10}{67}) \frac{1}{2}$ and simplify (according to BODMAS rule)?
But when simplifying I did as above by thinking that only $\frac{-67}{10}$ is in the denominator and the answer I got is 0.1164. But another friend of mine has thought that \frac{1}{2} is also in the denominator.
So I should probably explain to him that to be sure, we should put bracket to entire $\frac{-67}{10} \frac{1}{2}$?