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00:11
@TedShifrin having trouble framing your non overlapping rectangles with sides parallel to coordinate axes question....How to capture the triangle and rectangles in a unified set of variables?
This is a standard, standard, standard 2-variable problem.
Doing all the compactness/max. value theorem checks is less standard for a calculus student, but the set-up should be easy.
What are you using as your variables?
I did the simpler version of trying to maximize area of one rectangle.
That's a one-variable calculus problem.
But if you know how to do that one, you shouldn't have trouble with the problem.
That one I got a result of length and height both being $1/2$.
Well, so I return to my question. What are you going to use as the independent variables for the actual problem?
00:21
hmm...one thing I had thought of was perhaps it may be easier to minimize the area left over from the two rectangles. in that case one variable would be $1 - (x_a + x_b)$ where $x_i$ is the length of the bottom of the rectangle
but I'm still trapped with more than two variables....so writing that out woun't work
The sum of the two areas is easy enough. So why not use those two $x$ coordinates?
but I would also need their $y$ coordinate analogues as well and that wold be four variables
No. Not independent of these two. Think!
It goes without saying that a simple drawing clarifies everything. Even leslie would concede that.
first thing i did was a drawing
conceded
Well, no wonder. Your picture does not comply with the legal terms of the problem.
Clearly, a picture such as yours can’t result in maximal area, btw.
I see....let me go rework the picture then.
hilroy, eh? only the finest of papers for you. big spender.
just noticed the branding at the bottom of the piece of paper. i don't think it's actually fancy paper.
00:45
I triggered leslie back to his days of scribbling notes on lower tier paper and the rough dragging of his pen over it
Does the problem not specifically specify inscribed rectangles?
i don't even know the problem statement, but you wanna nudge the rectangle on the left up and to the right, and the rectangle on the right to the left if you wanna maximize area.
at least it'll get you into a smaller parameter space.
no student of mine has ever had problems drawing the right picture.
wait...does inscribed mean that they MUST touch the edges?
00:49
@TedShifrin 😭😭
when did you last inscribe a triangle in a circle by having it well inside the interior?
true...
people don't inscribe triangles in circles, ted
I appoint leslie to persecute and prosecute.
that's something they only do on the old parchments you read
maybe euclid did that, but he walked so we could run
00:52
As a thought exercise you should convince yourself that to get maximum area the rectangles need to be not only inscribed, but also contiguous.
Much better.
just idea scribbling, not formal by any means
inscribing was the game changer....
01:17
No, there’s a significant error.
I was working things out and I see an error in what I did as well because I may have calculated the "length" that maximizes the individual rectangles, but those won't give the right coordinates
based on my picture, the coordinate for $x_b$ would have to be the sum of the length of the base of rectangle A and base of rectangle B
Right.
and what I have above as my sum of areas ended up giving me $1/2$ for each of $x_b$ and clearly if I sum those I get 1 which isn't right because that would be a flat rectangle.
Some playing around with relationships ensues then.
01:36
Heyo what's going
Let A be an n by n , $n\ge 2$ matrix whose characteristic poly. is $x^{n-2}(x^2-1)$. Then rank of A is
dimension of eigenspace of 0 is n-2, which is same as nullity A.
So rank A= n-nullity A= n-(n-2)=2.
But this is apparently not correct.
the given correct answer is: rank A is at least 2.
Can anyone please let me know what went wrong in the above solution?
@Koro What's the rank of {{0,1},{0,0}}?
$\begin{bmatrix}0&1\\0&0\end{bmatrix}$
And what's its characteristic polynomial?
$x^2$
01:45
What's the eigenspace of 0?
all scalar multiples of (1,0).
And that has dimension 1
even though the characteristic polynomial is a multiple of $x^2$
agreed.
yes.
What about something like, a 3x3 matrix with 0s on the diagonal and everything below, 1 all above
$\begin{bmatrix}0&1&1\\0&0&1\\0&0&0\end{bmatrix}$
(Not even sure that top-right 1 is necessary)
Oh, I understood my mistake now.
I thought earlier that power of x in the poly. is actually eigenspace of 0.
which is not true at all!
01:48
I think $\begin{bmatrix}0&1&0\\0&0&1\\0&0&0\end{bmatrix}$ also works for what I wanted
I don't know much of the theory here beyond the examples I've just given, but I think this is probably relevant:
In linear algebra, a Jordan normal form, also known as a Jordan canonical form or JCF, is an upper triangular matrix of a particular form called a Jordan matrix representing a linear operator on a finite-dimensional vector space with respect to some basis. Such a matrix has each non-zero off-diagonal entry equal to 1, immediately above the main diagonal (on the superdiagonal), and with identical diagonal entries to the left and below them. Let V be a vector space over a field K. Then a basis with respect to which the matrix has the required form exists if and only if all eigenvalues of the matrix...
yes, it does. char. poly. is $x^3$ but eigenspace of 0 is of 1 dimension.
The point here is that: dim of eigenspace of 0= GM of 0 $\le n-2$
So rank A = n- nullity A $\ge n-(n-2)=2$
Incidentally, you may find this pdf interesting: maa.org/sites/default/files/pdf/awards/Axler-Ford-1996.pdf
thanks a lot @AkivaWeinberger
It goes through characteristic polynomials and eigenvalues without using determinants
"Down With Determinants!" by Sheldon Axler
Your formula above is wrong.
01:56
There were a handful of formulas
$(x_A, y_A) = (1/3, 2/3), (x_B, y_B) = (2/3, 1/3)$
koro is a big fan of the book that developed from that article :)
@leslietownes THought he was persona non grata around here...
Not you, DogAteMy. sorry.
02:12
Koro, then?
Or DC3?
@AkivaWeinberger :-)
It's interesting how at least to me how some things in math are used absent mindedly........I most likely have in the past, but I just noticed doing the maximization question how I would just treat the cartesian plane as is and not as a proper tool.....just my mind wandering...
@AkivaWeinberger isn't the characteristic polynomial defined in terms of a determinant? well at least up to now what I've read in my Lin-Alg book it points to that
Well, if you think that, then do I have the pdf link for you
(I think it does it in terms of the eigenvalues)
@AkivaWeinberger yeah that's what I'm talking about specifically....
I've glanced at characteristic polynomials in other spaces, but since I'm not that advacned yet haven't delved into them
The definition's on page 7
but the interesting bit is the definition of "generalized eigenvalues" which occurs a bit earlier
(page 3)
02:18
the characteristic polynopmial how he defines it is already split.
I will say that I don't share his enthusiasm
(Axler's enthusiasm against determinants)
haven't played enough with them to have a position to take. beyond the basic linear algebra stuff
I definitely disagree with him. Stooopid analyst.
is there a reason he takes that position that is at my level of comprehension at this point?
He thinks they're non-intuitive
02:27
@leslietownes 😊😊
🫠
@AkivaWeinberger as a descriptive object? or how to compute them?
Literally just read the article
I'm not answering myself because I'm finding it hard to empathize with his position
He thinks there's basically no time you're ever gonna need them
and also in practice they're hard to compute and give you no real information about the matrix
(I suppose the sign does, but (according to him) not the magnitude)
I personally think it's useful to know that the "volume" of a linear transformation is a polynomial in terms of the entries
and not too unintuitive to think that $\bigwedge^n\Bbb R^n$ is isomorphic to $\Bbb R$ (given one knows what $\Lambda$ means)
I think it's easier to leverage intuition already built up about polynomials and simple algebraic rules like $\det(AB)=\det A\det B$ then build up a new intuition about how to reason about generalized eigenvalues
but I'm not Axler
@TedShifrin who's a stupid analyst?
Nooooo
02:39
akiva i think his position is more of a pedagogical one. lots of great reasons to study determinants, some of the russian texts in particular often start with them and do a great job. but they can be very badly taught. and maybe were more in his day than now.
I read somewhere that working with operators is more natural than working with matrices as the former doesn’t depend upon basis.
i've met people who knew that det L was the dual of the nth wedge power of L and could not calculate one. that's its own kind of pedagogical problem.
anyway when you're coming out with a textbook, you need branding. axler was building his brand. these days he would build it by beefing with other mathematicians on tiktok.
like how ted sells copies of multivariable mathematics by sitting in his yacht and spitting champagne at you, the viewer, talking about how bad all the other books are, while nas 'hate me now' plays in the background
4
03:03
Yup. I agree only to the extent that describing a linear map as a $\theta$ rotation about an axis is far more meaningful than a matrix representation in the standard basis. But I think analysts think more indinite-dimensionally and not necessarily in terms to teach undergraduates.
Maybe I should specify operator theory types, not geometric analysts. So robjohn will not take it personally. :P
@robjohn I was very careful to specify stoopid.
@Ted what was your function that was injective on a dense subset? Or should we not discuss that yet?
I don't know if the underlying question is still at large.
03:19
Let $G$ be a finite group and $K<G$ be a subgroup. If any $g\in G\setminus K$ has order $2$ then $K$ is abelian. How can I show this?
@robjohn was it a function $[0,1]\to\mathbb R$?
@leslietownes 🤣🤣🤣....I could picture this vividly in a red robe with a large diamond encrusted chain with a "math god" pendant dangling from it....
@CalvinKhor mine was different
@robjohn I took $x$ on the rationals from $0$ to $1/2$ and $1-x$ on the irrationals to $1$.
I took $\sin(x)$ on $\mathbb{Q}$.
Before I saw that, I took something like yours, however.
03:25
Interesting. A little harder :) i don’t need $\pi$ irrational :)
$f(x)=|x|$ on $[-1,1]$ with the dense set $(\mathbb{Q}\cap[-1,0])\cup((\mathbb{Q}+\sqrt2)\cap[0,1])$
That was my first one
Yeah, isomorphic to mine.
i thought you guys were talking about continuous function on X, injective on dense subset of X, non-injective on X
We are.
Indeed
03:26
oh wait lol let me reread then
oh i see haha
nice
one: by "any" do you mean "every" there? you must.
given the target space wasn't defined i had the much dumber example (sin t, cos t) on [0,2pi] with [0,2pi) dense
Related, injections aren’t a stable family of functions unless you also have immersions.
Well, the original question was about maps $X\to X$.
sorry, didnt see that... :)
just saw you guys discussing it midway
He wanted two functions that were inverses in a dense subset to be globally inverses.
03:30
hmm lol
Tempting, but …
@onepotatotwopotato You want "every" rather than "any"
(otherwise $S_3<S_5$ is a counterexample)
So OK, say $a,b\in K$ and $g\in G\setminus K$. We know $ag,bg,abg\in G\setminus K$ also
('cause if for example $ag$ and $a$ are both in the subset then so is $g$)
03:32
so we know $g^2=agag=bgbg=abgabg=e$
I'm gonna try random stuff 'til it works
If $agag=e$ then $gag=a^{-1}$, similarly $gbg=b^{-1}$
so we want to show $aba^{-1}b^{-1}=e$ (to show $a$ and $b$ commute), let's substitute in those formulas for $a^{-1}$ and $b^{-1}$
so $aba^{-1}b^{-1}=ab(gag)(gbg)=abgag^2bg=abgabg$
${}=(abg)^2=e$
That's a really neat fact, though, I don't think I knew it before
I wonder if there's a more direct way
I guess a kind of prototypical example here would be $C_n<D_n$
(where $C_n$, sometimes written $Z_n$ or $\Bbb Z/n\Bbb Z$, is the cyclic group of size $n$, and $D_n$ is the dihedral group of size $2n$)
If $K$ is such a case then $K$ is always normal subgroup of $G$?
03:37
What’s the neat fact?
If you have a subgroup $K<G$ with the property that every element of $G\setminus K$ is order $2$, then $K$ is abelian
Oh here's a more direct way to see it
Because $(ga)^2=e$ and $g^2=e$, this means that $ga=a^{-1}g$
thus $gab=a^{-1}gb=a^{-1}b^{-1}g$
but at the same time $gab=(ab)^{-1}g$
thus $a^{-1}b^{-1}=(ab)^{-1}$ which means $K$ is abelian
Hmm, never encountered that. So $G/K$ is a direct sum of $\Bbb Z_2$s.
$G\setminus K$, not $G/K$
Set complement
I understand.
The example I gave is $C_n<D_n$ (cyclic group in dihedral group)
03:42
I just thought of the world's greatest number theory game.
Is it "I think of a semiprime and you find its nontrivial factors"?
i found this in rose. under these hypotheses, if k^2 isn't e for some k in K, then G is the dihedral group on K
Consider the quotient, nevertheless.
We don't know K is normal
Do we know that $K$ is a normal subset?
Oh, I suppose we do actually
03:43
When you write < that’s what I assume. I don’t use that for subset.
'cause $gag^{-1}=a^{-1}$
@TedShifrin $K\lhd G$ is normal subgroup
Yeah, I never use those notations. Good reason …
Subgroup, not subset
Right, yeah
@leslietownes Interesting
It's based on Bertrand's postulate: I'll put own the first part of the sequence, then you must continue the sequence:
$1 \leq p_1 - 1 \leq p_1 + 1 \leq p_2\leq 2p_1 - 1\leq \dots$ When they're $=$ you can put them in any order you'd like. The goal is to list only numbers that are $= \pm 1 \pmod {p_i}$ for some prime number $i=1..n$. So by the end you have to have come up with a formula in $n$ from experience (hopefully).
That's the game, go. You can use only Bertrand's basically when you must come up with a formula with $n$ in it
03:46
$K\subseteq G$ means $K$ is a subset (not necessarily a group), $K\le G$ means subgroup, $K\unlhd G$ means normal subgroup. That's how I learned it
It is actually true in this case that it's normal, though
which you can kinda check directly
@onepotatotwopotato I think you should write G/K explicitly.
04:01
Without determinants, we could not have this puzzle^
(I have not yet started thinking about it)
 
2 hours later…
05:53
78. (GCD matrix) Let $D=(d_{ij})_{n\times n}$ where $d_{ij} = \operatorname{gcd}(i,j)$. Then,
$$
\det D = \varphi(1)\varphi(2)\dots \varphi(n)
$$where $\varphi$ is Euler's $\varphi$ function: $\varphi(m) = \lvert \{ k \mid 1 \le k \le m , \ \operatorname{gcd}(k,m) = 1 \} \rvert $
from the odd spacing in the image it looks like they might've used \mid outside the { } too
is it correct that the only prime ideal in $\Bbb{Z}/9\Bbb{Z}$ is $[3]$?
sounds right to me
perfect thanks!
@leslietownes all the more reason to re-type it correctly
05:57
no \textbf{GCD matrix} for you
Yeah I gave up on why bold didn't work. Maybe its the brackets. test. (test). (test).
my aesthetic would be for \cdots and not \dots there
Oh, now it works. fuck you too mathjax
the important thing is that the conversational ball is rolling
@leslietownes what about $a_1\cdot a_2 \cdot \dots \cdot a_n$
06:00
yeah, no
how do you interpret an RMSE of 100000+ ?
@automorp15m root mean square error? in what units, microns?
size matters
we're dealing with millions (money)
so we get 100000+ as RMSE
thought this was reliable, it has 18 recos
06:03
stat education is full of rules of thumb like that that have no basis in anything objective
they can become objective if you toss a lot of models and theory on top of it, but then you're not just staring at the size of one number
Did Hamid actually mean RMSPE
what on earth is rmspe
6
Q: What is the correct definition of the root mean square percentage error (RMSPE)?

NosGöçken et al. define the root mean square percentage error (RMSPE) as \begin{equation} \text{RMSPE} = \sqrt{\frac{100\%}{n} \cdot \sum_{i=1}^n \Delta X^2_{\text{rel},i}} \end{equation} with \begin{equation} \Delta X_{\text{rel},i}=\frac{X_i}{T_i}-1, \end{equation} where $T_i$ is the desired val...

even if you normalize in some way it's still a rule of thumb and not something objective
all of this stuff is pretty context specific, in terms of what matters and what a good model is, it's always a judgment call but it's more subtle than looking at one number
or at least oughta be
if they're teaching your class throw the model out and start again until you get something less than 0.5
it's called learning
@automorp15m this post wondering where to multiply by 1 is amusing
06:12
@CalvinKhor yeah! noticed that too lol
i wouldn't put too much stock into an online comment
i'm just frustrated can't find any other (yet)

and it's researchgate,
it has 18 recos from other researchers
trust issues 📈📈
theres some silly people on research gate too
with enough money anyone can "publish"
must you have some sort of verified publication in order to reco? Or is it a similar issue with twitter botting? I would assume the latter
06:28
not that familiar with it
thought it's vetted through a rigorous process
assumed*
06:50
personally i look for an RMSWTF of $\aleph_0$
 
2 hours later…
08:58
@copper.hat is that the aleph-null test?
Could maybe someone help me here?math.stackexchange.com/questions/4468027/…
09:20
can anyone help me understand why a flow is invertible
think im missing something very obvious
Im looking at these notes on the continuity equation and the corresponding flow/ODE
why is the flow $x$ of $b$ in theorem III.1 invertible?
ignore me- i see it comes from the property of being a flow.
you mean (53) right? @Monty
and those aren't notes, that's the paper of DiPerna-Lions
09:44
are there some easy examples of integrally closed domains which are not fields?
I mean sure PID and UFD are integrally closed domains but are there further ones?
10:21
yup sorry calvin
10:35
@Wave since PID -> UFD, anything that isnt a UFD but a domain and not a field would work as an example
so for instance, something non-noetherian that is a domain will work, e.g. R[x_1,x_2,...] where R is some ID
also usually integrally closed just follows from something being a domain
or rather all the time, as far as rings are concerned, domain = integral domain = integrally closed ring
oh whoops, what i just wrote is a UFD
my bad
it isnt noetherian though, but that doesnt mean you cant factorize
you can try something like formal $\mathbb{C}$-linear combinations of nonnegative rational powers of $t$, this isnt a UFD but it is a domain
VLC
VLC
11:03
Can somebody help me with a parametrisation problem: We have points A(0,0,0), B(1,0,0) and C(1,1,1). I need to parametrise in the orientation: $A \rightarrow B \rightarrow C \rightarrow A$
To get a closed curve
11:14
@porridgemathematics perfect thanks!
Suppose that A is a 2 by 2 matrix whose trace is 5 and determinant is 6. Now I define $T: M_2(R)\to M_2(R)$ as $T(B)=AB$.
Is T diagonalizable?
So here it can be observed here that A is diagonalizable.
11:32
@Koro if $A$ is diagble, then $T$ is too, let $v_1,...,v_n$ by an eigenbasis of $A$, and consider $(v_j | 0)$, $(0 | v_k)$, for $j,k=1...n$, these form an eigenbasis of $M_2(R)$ with respect to $T$
Eigenvalues of A are infact 3 and 2. Let u and v be corresponding eigenvectors.
uh i mean of $M_n(R)$, i.e. what I said should work for any dimension
(u, 0),(0,u),(0,v),(v,0) are linearly independent eigenvalues of T.
the eigenvalues of $T$ are the same as that of $A$, but $T$ can still be diagble with eigenvalues that have arithmetic multiplicity greater than one, i.e. it does not need to have distinct eigenvalues to be diagble
that is sufficient but it isnt an equivalent condition
dim M_2(R)=4 so T has a basis consisting of eigenvectors.
u and v are LI.
11:42
eigenvectors
T's eigenvalues are $2$ and $3$
:-)
12:05
So, this might be a dumb question
Let's say that a set of vectors $(e_\mu)$ of a Hilbert space is an orthonormal basis if it's a maximal orthonormal set
How do I show that $(e_\mu)$ spans the whole space
Oh, I guess, if $H$ is our Hilbert space and $F = \overline{\text{span}}\{e_\mu\}$ then $H = F\oplus F^\perp$ so that if $F\neq H$ then $F^\perp \neq \{0\}$.
Interesting, so they study Schauder bases in Hilbert spaces as well
12:37
but this means the span is dense in the whole space, not that the ON basis really spans the whole space
what am I missing here : where is it used that the map $\phi$ is invertible?.
$\mathcal{H}$ is relative entropy.
 
2 hours later…
14:13
@porridgemathematics semantics
14:24
$\varphi\#\mu(A) = \mu(\varphi^{-1}(A)) = \int_{\varphi^{-1}(A)} \frac{d\mu}{d\nu}(\omega)d\nu(\omega)$, since $\varphi$ is invertible we have $\varphi\#\mu(A) = \int_A \frac{d\mu}{d\nu}(\varphi^{-1}(\omega))d\varphi\#\nu(\omega)$
@DanielAdams I believe this is where invertibility is coming from
Without it, we wouldn't be able to use the formula $$\int g d(f\# \mu) = \int g\circ f d\mu$$
14:37
Hello do someone know abut forgetful functors?
forget structure?
Yes right I am looking at forgetful functur from R-modules to abelian groups for a ring R
So I look at a prove where they show that this functor is exact.
@onepotatotwopotato I mean it is clear that we need to take a short exact sequence of R-modules 0->M'->M->M''->0 and show that if we apply the functor we still get a short exact sequence right?
don't ask me I've never studied category theory seriously
Me neither I'm taking commutative algebra
@Jakobian yes I got it, to get the relation between the radon-Nikodym derivative and the push forward you need the invertibility.
14:50
I took CA last year and it's like nightmare to me. I remember I couldn't solve almost half of the problems in final exam. After that I don't take any advanced algebra course.
Hahah I'm at the same point now... it's horrible and my exam is in 4 weeks... I don't see why we should use this and how...
Funny thing is that even if I tried to avoid algebra, after all, the only thing that mathematician can do (or human can do) is essentially just algebra or analysis
Sometimes it's like mystery with a lot of symbols and handwaving.
15:26
@Wave yes
@Jakobian ah so can I ask you about my question
Okay
@Jakobian Perfect thank you. So as I said I need to take this exact sequence of R-modules. Then applying the functor I get 0->F(M)->F(M')->F(M'')->0. Let me denote f:M'->M and g:M->M''. Then the corresponding maps would be F(f):F(M)->F(M') and F(g):F(M')->F(M''). So then to say if it is exact I need to check that ker(F(g))=im(F(f)) right?
Well the maps don't change, kernel and images are the same too
@Wave You also want F(f) to be injective and F(g) to be surjective, but yes
Ahhhhhhhh so the maps don't change only one operation gets lost @Jakobian
And therefore also injectivity of F(f) and surjectivity of F(g) don't get lost?
15:35
No, they don't change
sorry my english is not so well do you mean with no, that I said something wrong or do you mean no nothing change and what I said is correct
The maps don't change
perfect thanks!
VLC
VLC
15:50
Does anybody know how jacobian in spherical coordinates changes if:

$x = r/3 * cos(phi) cos(theta)$
And others stay like $y = r sin(phi ) cos(theta)$ and $z = rsin(theta)$
16:25
Hi!
When considering $1^{\frac{5}{2}}$, can I say it is equal to 1?
I mean if we think of it as ${{-1}^{2}}^{\frac{5}{2}}$, then it is equal to $-1$ so then should I say both $1$ and $-1$ are solutions?
NO.
$[(-1)^2]^{1/2} = 1$. You're being sloppy with "rules."
Hi, @TedShifrin
Is it by thinking that we should simplify inside the brackets first?
Yes. Only for positive numbers $a$ do you know that $(a^p)^q = a^(pq)$.
you always want to do the sanity check of plugging in roots back into the original equation
it won't tell you if you've missed roots, but it will tell you if the ones you came up with are right
Well, in this case, it's an expression, not an equation.
16:35
Hmm, okay. Then when taking square root of 1 = + or -1
Square root means positive square root, always ...
The square root of $1$ is $1$.
for stuff like 1^(p/q) you really need to do complex algebra
if you want values other than 1
The equation $x^2 = 1$ has two solutions, which are $\pm 1$. But that doesn't mean that the square root of $1$ is either $-1$ or $+1$.
16:36
Ohh, okay
Now I get it :)
eh, it depends on how you use the phrase "square root". for instance, Wikipedia's initial definition is "In mathematics, a square root of a number x is a number y such that y^2 = x."
reserving the positive square root for "principal square root"
Unless otherwise noted, the notation $\sqrt{x}$ denotes the (rolls die... 1, which is odd) principle square root of $x$. If $x>0$, then this principal square root is well-defined, and is positive.
(the second die roll was a 4)
So when you just take the square root like $\sqrt{9}$ it is always equal to +3
i mean, that is certainly one definition. but i would hardly be shocked if certain texts don't define it like that
@Semiclassical Right, which is why I emphasized the definite article, "the".
16:39
This is why we write $\pm\sqrt{b^2-4ac}$ in the quadratic formula.
@TedShifrin To specifically say that the - one also should be considered?
Right, because $\sqrt{\text{blah}}$ is always $\ge 0$.
Okay, cool
@Xander I wish you had bolded the correct principal.
Thank you very much @TedShifrin @Semiclassical and @XanderHenderson
16:41
You're welcome.
@TedShifrin Yeah. But, at this point, it is more fun not to.
You just want to drive me maximally nuts.
there's also the annoying point of what exactly $\sqrt{}$ means if you don't have real roots
But, just to make you happy, I have bolded it now. :D
Gee, thanks.
16:42
No problem!
but doing $\pm$ washes over that too
Well, in the complex case, both values are represented by $\sqrt{}$, and so you don't need the $\pm$ :D
@Semiclassical Sure, but, again, unless otherwise noted, the default assumption is that it means the (4) principal square root, which is not unambiguously defined, but which should be contextually well-defined.
I disagree. What if your number lands on the "principal branch cut"?
16:45
1^(p/2) at least has the generosity to only have at most two possible values
To me, $\sqrt z$ is a bifunction when $z\in\Bbb C$.
ze^z=w, by contrast...yikes
Unless specifically specified.
@TedShifrin Which is why I note that the (2) principal square root is not unambiguously defined, but it should be contextually well-defined.
With logarithm, we can make you write Log. But I know no analogous notation for $\sqrt{}$.
@Xander I think I disagree, having worked in $\Bbb C$ almost all my mathematical life.
16:47
with the Lambert W function you've got the subscript to denote which branch you're on
tho the way the branching works in that case is tricky
@TedShifrin We work in different areas, but I am not sure that I have ever seen the notation $\sqrt{\cdot}$ used in a place where this becomes problematic---most of the texts I have prefer to write everything in terms of exponentials and logarithms.
But the work I do only touches on complex analysis---I don't live there on a daily basis.
In the context of Riemann surfaces (where it's more algebraic) one is not going to write exponentials and logs :)
Anyhow, this is silly.
@TedShifrin Ah, that makes sense.
Anyhow, I don't think high school algebra leads to a sufficient understanding of the exponent rules, and the $a^{pq} = (a^p)^q$ conundrum is a common confusion.
@TedShifrin Sure. Two or three "I've shown that $-1 = 1$ by abusing exponents!" questions get posted to the main page every month.
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