Mathematica says that it can't do the limit, but it leaves it unevaluated so the limit should exist: Clear[n, x, k]; x = 2; Limit[x/n*Sum[Log[1 + k^2*x^2/n^2], {k, 1, n}], n -> Infinity]
The limit gives me for x=2 and n=10^6: 1.4331748698945606`
While the integral gives me for N[Integrate[Log[x], {x, 1, 2 + 1}], 12] 1.29583686600
@Knight Can't say for sure, but they seem to be not equal. Also why do you have x+1 in the upper integration limit? Did you mean to write some other number there equal to x in the limit like: $\int_{1}^{X+1} ln(x) dx$
What is in general meant by a generator of a free group? For example here: "Given a set S, there is a function i: S → F(S), known as the canonical inclusion, sending each element of S to the corresponding generator of F(S)." .
@Thorgott Not one that I know at least (and if there were, then probably it would be the other sort of induction anyway)
@abhas_RewCie Ahh, that is probably a case of the other sort of induction then, where the word derives from "inducing"
so you induce from something to something else
usually it means to expand the range of applicability of something to something larger, but often not in a way where you can just restrict to get back the original
In mathematics, the Hadamard product (also known as the element-wise, entrywise or Schur product) is a binary operation that takes two matrices of the same dimensions and produces another matrix of the same dimension as the operands where each element i, j is the product of elements i, j of the original two matrices. It should not be confused with the more common matrix product. It is attributed to, and named after, either French mathematician Jacques Hadamard or German mathematician Issai Schur.
The Hadamard product is associative and distributive. Unlike the matrix product, it is also commutative...
If we think of $S^1$ as $\Bbb R / \Bbb Z$. The map $t \mapsto nt$ induces $z \mapsto z^n$. I start with an open set in $S^1$ and lift it to $\Bbb R$ (it is open because quotient), $t \mapsto nt$ is open. Then I project back to $S^1$ (this map is open, right?).
foliation on the punctured plane $X=\Bbb R/\{0\}.$ S Say you fatten each $y_k=k/x$ for $k \in \Bbb R$. You fatten the $y_k.$ To fatten them you have to embedd into $\Bbb R^3$ correct?
so you could define a radius now on the $y_k.$ in the following manner. $y_k=x$
so slice the hyperbola with $f(x)=x$
and then revolve the $y_k$ around the fixed points i suppose.
@MikeMiller Is that what you meant? If $n = 2$ the right hand side of your equation is $\Bbb Z/1$, the trivial group, which is not right.
Given a map $f : \Bbb{RP}^n \to \Bbb{RP}^n$, restrict to $\Bbb{RP}^{n-1}$. We know $[\Bbb{RP}^{n-1}, \Bbb{RP}^n] = [\Bbb{RP}^{n-1}, \Bbb{RP}^\infty] = H^1(\Bbb{RP}^{n-1}, \Bbb Z_2) = \Bbb Z_2$, so there are exactly two such maps upto homotopy, standard inclusion or collapse. By homotopy extension property we can homotopy $f$ so that $f|\Bbb{RP}^{n-1}$ is either standard inclusion or collapse as well.
If $f|\Bbb{RP}^{n-1}$ is a collapse, then $f$ gives rise to a class in $[S^n, \Bbb{RP}^n] = \pi_n \Bbb{RP}^n = \Bbb Z$.
If $f|\Bbb{RP}^{n-1}$ is the standard inclusion, then $f$ is a map of pairs $(\Bbb{RP}^n, \Bbb{RP}^{n-1}) \to (\Bbb{RP}^n, \Bbb{RP}^{n-1})$ which is identity on $\Bbb{RP}^{n-1}$, so lifts to a map $(D^n, \partial D^n) \to (D^n, \partial D^n)$ which is identity on $\partial D^n$. Such a map has to be relatively homotopic to the identity, right? By coning it off.
Right, so I think all that needs to be understood is the kernel of $[S^n, \Bbb{RP}^n] \to [\Bbb{RP}^n, \Bbb{RP}^n]$ given by precomposing with $\Bbb{RP}^n \to \Bbb{RP}^n/\Bbb{RP}^{n-1}$
I think the kernel of the map above is trivial or $2\Bbb Z$ depending on dimension? The second case doesn't matter it seems, all it contains is identity - if that's the case it doesn't contradict what you said.
Let $\Omega$ be an open subset of $\mathbb{C}$ and let $T \subset\Omega$ be a triangle whose interior is also contained in $\Omega$. Suppose that $f$ is a function holomorphic in $\Omega$ except possibly at a point $w$ inside $T$. Prove that if $f$ is bounded near $w$, then $\int_{T}f(z)dz=0$
Let $D_{\epsilon}(w)$ be an open disk of radius $\epsilon$ centered at $w$. There exists a $\epsilon_0>\epsilon>0$ such that the closure of $D_{\epsilon}(w)$ of $\mathbb{C}$ in $\Omega$. For any triangle $T$ in $\Omega$, let $T_{\epsilon}$ be the contour which is the union of $T\setminus\,D_{\epsilon}(w)$ and the boundary of $D_{\epsilon}(w)$ that is inside in the triangle $T$ is enclosed by $T$. Since $f$ is holomorphic in $T\setminus\,D_{\epsilon}(w)$, by Cauchy's Theorem, we have $$\int_{T_{\epsilon}}f(z)dz=0$$
Do you want to listen to some GGT stuff and tell me if it sounds sensible? I'm getting very confused by some stuff and I think explaining it to someone would be helpful
@BalarkaSen Oh, here's the point. You can get a map $(D^n, \partial D^n) \to \Bbb{RP}^n$ which is the double cover of the usual inclusion on the boundary. But why should you be able to lift it up to the disc as codomain?
Let's see. A map $\Bbb{RP}^n \to \Bbb{RP}^n$ which is identity on $\Bbb{RP}^{n-1}$ lifts to a map $(S^n, S^{n-1}) \to (S^n, S^{n-1})$ by map lifting lemma
On the $S^{n-1}$ factor it definitely has to be identity on antipodal though
I don't have any clean argument but there should be one
My idea is that if n is odd you can distinguish between all the different possible maps using the degree, while if n is even there should be some trick to cancel out the maps of even degree
Maybe try $n = 2$ like this? If $f : \Bbb{RP}^2 \to \Bbb{RP}^2$ is a smooth map, make $f$ transverse to $\Bbb{RP}^1$. The preimage is a bunch of closed curves in $\Bbb{RP}^2$ with Mobius normal bundle. These kind of guys upto cobordism in $\Bbb{RP}^2$ maybe determines the homotopy classes?
If you have a single Moebius loop collapsing the exterior gives a map to RP^2 for sure
Coalescing multiple Moebius loops might give trivial loops, in which case I expect the map to be trivial in the first place
@MikeMiller I think I see why, for example, the degree 2 map $S^n \to S^n$, when descended to $S^n \to \Bbb{RP}^n$ and precomposed by $\Bbb{RP}^n \to \Bbb{RP}^n/\Bbb{RP}^{n-1} = S^n$ to get $\Bbb{RP}^n \to \Bbb{RP}^n$, is always nullhomotopic.
It's because if you lift it up, you get $S^n \to S^n$, the map which folds the two hemispheres of the domain sphere to the upper hemisphere.
So I think the first case always gives me $\Bbb Z_2$'s worth of maps
@BAYMAX A and B can have nontrivially intersecting annihilators and you choose a nonzero element from there, call the singleton set I. Are you given additional hypotheses?