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19:01
Thanks. Will ask in site, to see if I get something else.
part of what's confusing here is that you're not really composing $g$ with $f$. the composition is really with $g\times \text{id}_B$
typo in what I said above: should hvae been $f(x,h(x,y))=y$ at the end
0
Q: Is there a standard notation to express the "partial inverse" of a multivariate function?

luchonachoConsider the function $$ y = f(x,w) $$ I am looking for "proper" notation for the "partial inverse" of $f(\cdot)$ with respect to each variable. Something like: $$ x = f^{-1}(y,w) $$ $$ w = f^{-1}(x,y) $$ But this does not differentiate them. Perhaps $$ x = f_x^{-1}(y,w) $$ $$ w = f_w^{-1...

thanks all
maybe the better view is that $g(y,w)=(y/w,w)$ so that $f(g(y,w))=f(y/w,w)=y$
But that seems sorta arbitrary
19:31
A question, based on one I just saw on main: Suppose $f(x)/x\to 1$ and $g(x)/x\to 1$ as $x\to 0$. Then it is certainly true that $f(x)/g(x)\to 1$ as $x\to 0$. Must $f^{n}(x)/g^{n}(x)\to 1$ as $x\to 0$?
If it exists, yes. Not sure if it necessarily does.
for comparison, it's this question/answer: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3510410/…
It feels as if there should be a counterexample at the very least for n>1
the notation $\displaystyle \lim_{f(x)\to 0} \frac{\sin f(x)}{f(x)}=1$ seems suspicious
I suspect it's actually fine, on the grounds that $x\mapsto \sin(x)$ is everywhere continuous and thus any iteration of it is as well
But the level of detail seems poor.
This should be a counter-example to your question.
19:43
oof
though, wouldn't $f(x)/x\to 1$ as $x \to 0$ necessitate both $f(0)=0$ and $f'(0)=1$?
If $f(0)\neq 0$, then the limit wouldn't exist. And if the limit exists, then it's the definition of the derivative.
Oh wait, the example I linked is for $x\rightarrow\infty$, but it should work with some modification.
And yes, you do get $f^{\prime}(0)=1$, so any counterexample would need some discontinuity in the derivative (in particular, if you're assuming $C^1$, then the statement should ohld).
yeah
So what ensures that $\sin x$ is a good example is presumably not just that it's everywhere continuous but that it's analytic
So, by L'Hospital, we get the statement is true for higher $n$ if $f$ is sufficiently differentiable and its higher derivatives zeros don't accumulate in $0$, though the second condition seems rather awkward.
yeah, it's a bit gross
I don't know how to engineer a reasonably-simple counterexample tho
I was trying to throw something together with x^2sin(1/x), but I didn't get it to work. Now I'm trying to think of other examples of functions with discontinuous derivatives, but I actually don't know many.
It suffices to find a differentiable function $f$ with $f(x)/x\rightarrow1$ as $x\rightarrow0$ and $f^{\prime}$ discontinuous at $0$. Then we can take $g(x)=x$ and it will be a counterexample.
20:00
hmm
I agree that that would suffice, but can that possibly occur?
@Thorgott I now understand exactly that a root of a polynomial is simply the zero of the corresponding polynomial function. Apologies for my previous questions, they were coming from a lack of understanding of polynomials and roots of polynomials. Your example of plugging 5 into that polynomial and the Wikipedia article got me to perfectly understand what a root of a polynomial is. Thanks a lot for your clear and concise explanations.
no problem, glad you understand it now
Wait, we can just take $f(x)=x+x^2\sin\frac{1}{x}$ (extended)
$\frac{f(x)}{x}=1+x\sin\frac{1}{x}\rightarrow1$ as $x\rightarrow0$, it's differentiable as sum of differentiable functions and its derivative is discontinuous at $0$, because the derivative of $x^2\sin\frac{1}{x}$ at $0$ is discontinuous, but the one of $x$ is not.
nice
except that Mathematica claims that $f(f(x))/x\to 1$ as $x\to 0$
Why are you looking at $f(f(x))/x$? The claim is that $f^{\prime}(x)/g^{\prime}(x)\not\rightarrow1$
um
oh
36 mins ago, by Semiclassical
A question, based on one I just saw on main: Suppose $f(x)/x\to 1$ and $g(x)/x\to 1$ as $x\to 0$. Then it is certainly true that $f(x)/g(x)\to 1$ as $x\to 0$. Must $f^{n}(x)/g^{n}(x)\to 1$ as $x\to 0$?
$f^n$ is meant as composition, not differentiation
20:08
Oh.........
Now that's unfortunate
yeah.
I write nth derivatives as $f^{(n)}$
but $f^{\circ n}$ would probably have been better
Hmm, so $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ both tend to $0$ as $x\rightarrow0$, so for $f(f(x))/g(g(x))$ to not tend to $1$, $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ would need to tend to $0$ at different rates, but this may be ruled out because $f(x)/x$ and $g(x)/x$ tend to $1$, so they should tend to rate both roughly at the rate of $x$ itself.
Let's see if that can be turned into epsilons and deltas
mostly I'm paranoid whether the answers given here can actually be generalized
for instance, the Taylor series approach falls apart if $f(x)$ is not analytic near the origin
and the other one is suspicious to me because the notation $\lim_{f(x)\to 0}\frac{\sin f(x)}{f(x)}=0$ seems highly dubious
If we can guarantee $f(f(x))/x\rightarrow1$, we're good to go, but I'm not sure if that's true
I'm putting together a question for this
Maybe I should just stick with the simplest version, where $g(x)=x$
Given $f:\mathbb{R}\to \mathbb{R}$ such that $x^{-1}f(x)\to 1$ as $x\to 0$, does it follow that $$x^{-1}f^{\circ n}(x)=x^{-1}(f\circ f\circ\cdots \circ f)(x)\to 1$$ as $x\to 0$?
20:28
This implies the general version, because $f^{\circ n}(x)/g^{\circ n}(x)=(f^{\circ n}(x)/x)/(g^{\circ n}(x)/x)$
Oh, nice
then I'll just stick with that
Doing a similar expansion iteratively, I think it should suffice that $f^{\circ n}/f^{\circ n-1}$ tends to $1$
@TedShifrin are you around?
It feels correct in my heuristic as above, but I can't seem to prove it and analysis counterexamples can be scary
20:32
Ciao @Alessandro
Va bene, grazie. Sono preso dal concorso per ALGANT.
E tu? Come stai? Come va la tesi di specializzazione (come si dice "master thesis" in italiano?)?
Capito, entro quando devi fare la domanda per il concorso?
@LukasHeger Tesi magistrale
Ora sto studiando per gli esami più che altro, riprenderò a lavorare seriamente alla tesi a Febbraio
@AlessandroCodenotti prima di 1. Febbraio
dell'1 Febbraio *
20:38
grazie
@Thorgott Another way to pose this: If $f(x)\sim x$ as $x\to 0$, must one have $f^{\circ n}(x)\sim x$ for all $n$?
Devo fare troppe cose per il concorso: curriculum, una lettera di motivazione, due lettere di raccomandazione, un test di inglese (IELTS) ecc.
Yeah; that phrasing makes me feel it should be true at least for $f$ Lipschitz
@LukasHeger Posso immaginare, io sto iniziando a guardarmi intorno per il dottorato ed è deprimente...
Hi, does anyone happen to have an idea what this notation means: NI(0,sigma^2). I'm reading about sampling statistics by Fuller and I don
dont recall seeing this notation before. NI(0, sigma^2)
x ~ NI(0, \sigma^2)
20:44
Looks like a normal distribution except for the I
Exactly, was thinking the same, the 'I' was where I got confused...
I thought it was a typo at first, but then he used it many times over, I'll see if I can upload a screenshot
Here you can see an example
Maybe it is an I for Independent since you're actually considering more normal distributions?
Perhaps, thank you, I will add another screenshot
Sounds reasonable
It says bivariate normal in the text, so it must be something along those lines
@Alessandro domani farò una presentazione della geometria rigida e dopodomani sostenerò gli esami di IELTS (comprensione orale, comprensione scritta, composizione scritta ed esame orale), è un po' stressante
20:50
@LukasHeger Oh, in bocca al lupo per entrambi!
Fuller seems to introduce the NI notation in Theorem 1.2.4, judging from Google Books
@AlessandroCodenotti grazie!
Here's another example. Thank you @AlessandroCodenotti, @Thorgott and @Semiclassical
This is certainly consistent with Alessandros interpretation
20:51
Thank you :) I will take a look
where $NI(\mu,\sigma^2)$ is a set of $n$ normal independent random variables, each with mean $\mu$ and variance $\sigma^2$
I just realized that "in bocca al lupo" sounds very weird when translated into English @Lukas
it sounds very weird in German as well
but I learned it in one of my courses
excellent, thank you all for your help!
@Thorgott what I've got so far as a draft:
"Suppose $f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ and let $f^{n}$ be its $n$-fold iterate. If
$f(x)\sim x$ as $x\to 0$, is $f^{n}(x)\sim f^{n-1}(x)$? If not, what is a counterexample and what conditions on $f$ are sufficient?

This problem is motivated by the following recent question https://math.stackexchange.com/q/3510410/137524, which reduced to arguing that
$\sin(f(x))\sim f(x)$ where $f(x)$ is some iterate of $\sin x$ (and similarly for $\tan x$.)"
20:54
Sounds good
0
Q: Asymptotic behavior of $n$-fold iterate near the origin

SemiclassicalSuppose $f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ and let $f^{n}$ be its $n$-fold iterate. If $f(x)\sim x$ as $x\to 0$, is $f^{n}(x)\sim f^{n-1}(x)$? If not, what is a counterexample and what conditions on $f$ are sufficient? This problem is motivated by the recent question $\lim_{x\to 0}\frac{\sin(\sin(\sin...

I got a partial affirmative: If $f$ is $L$-Lipschitz, then $|\frac{f^n(x)}{f^{n-1}(x)}-1|=\frac{|f^n(x)-f^{n-1}(x)|}{|f^{n-1}(x)|}\le L^{n-1}\frac{|f(x)-x|}{|f(x)|}\rightarrow0$ as $x\rightarrow0$.
I think we should be able to do better though
I'm just going to leave that question up and let it simmer for a bit.
21:03
Also I think we need to assume that $f$ does not vanish at any point near zero (except zero itself of course) for the question to be well-posed
Given topological space $X_i$, what topology do I need on $X_i^*$ $=$ $\{$ $(x_i): x\in X_i$ $\}$ to make $X_i$ and $X_i^*$ homeomorphic?
so no sequence of zeros accumulating at the origin
@topologicalmagician I don't quite understand your definition of $X_i^\ast$
Yeah. Otherwise the limit won't exist.
I feel like that's implied by $f(x)\sim x$ in the first place, though
21:05
Oh, you're right
@AlessandroCodenotti its the image of the canonical injection from $X_i$ to the disjoint union of $X_i's$
The assumption $f(x)\sim x$ is pretty strong, is what this seems to amount to
ooooh wait
I meanat
It is always a homeomorphism then if you give it the subspace topology inherited from the disjoint union
21:07
Yeah, it implies differentiability at $0$ if you have continuity at $0$, which seems strong
Given topological space $X_i$, what topology do I need on $X_i^*$ $=$ $\{$ $(x,i): x\in X_i$ $\}$ to make $X_i$ and $X_i^*$ homeomorphic
I'm supposed to construct a topology independent of the disjoint union
I meant $(x,i)$ not $(x_i)$
@AlessandroCodenotti
The $i$ is irrelevant, if $U$ is open in $X_i$ then U^\ast=\{(u,i)\mid u\in U\}$ should be open in $X_i^\ast$
hi @ShineOnYouCrazyDiamond
Hello, is that Paul Hans Fischer?
no, it's MatheinBoulomenos
the author of without loss of universality :)
21:14
Oh, hi
:D
I'm waiting for someone to ping me here, someone that want's to work on BananaCats with me
I do know a Paul Fischer, but not a Paul Hans Fischer
@ShineOnYouCrazyDiamond I recently published a second part on adjunctions, though I'll need a third part on adjunctions as well
I see you've removed the grey backing of LaTeX. Looks nicer
21:17
yeah
LaTeX didn't work nicely with the theme I had
(A Hölder condition obviously works with the same argument)
@Semiclassical Oh wow, the question has been answered
yeah, was about to say
and remarkably simply
i'm not going to accept immediately, but if no one offers anything else I will
Indeed, I expected it to be uglier
second answer as well
@ShineOnYouCrazyDiamond hi
the more I learn, the less I know. I feel like I'm constantly losing ground lol
Get used to it, I'm afraid.
I'm used to it
The more you know, the more aware you are of how much there is to know (and therefore how ignorant you are)
21:27
well said
The grass is always greener on the other side of the fence.
The bigger they are the harder they fall.
yeah
Define the diffeomorphism, $f:M\to N,$ with $(x,y)\in M$ and $(e^x,e^y)\in N$ s.t. $(x,y)$ is a point in quadrant I or III
I have the metric for $M$ but not for $N.$ Is this enough information to deduce the metric on $N?$
You can always pull a metric through an homeomorphism of two spaces. Just measure the distance between the (pre)images of two points
oh okay
21:47
This does in no way determine a metric on $N$, your setup doesn't even rely on the notion of a metric being present.
1
Q: Minkowski Functional Evaluated at a Point Outside the Convex Set

user193319Let $K$ be a convex set in a vector space such that $0$ is an internal point of $K$, let $p_K$ be the associated Minkowski functional, and let $z \notin K$. Why must $p_K(z) \ge 1$ hold? If it were true that $z \in p_K(z) \cdot K$, then if $p_K(z) < 1$ were the case, I could write $z = p_K(z) \cd...

@Thorgott oh, so is alessandro wrong?
22:04
I said the manifolds are homeomorphic, and the pre-image already has a metric. That seems as if it would be enough to pull the metric through by measuring the distance between the pre-images of two points as alessandro said
I was assuming $M\subseteq\mathbb{R}$ (what sense does $e^x,e^y$ make otherwise?). In either case, Alessandros construction certainly gives a way to define a metric on $N$, but it's in general not unique (and "deduce the metric" sounds like you want it to be uniquely determined).
oh I see
yeah I actually meant, that I just wanted to find a metric, doesn't have to be uniquely determined, and then try to prove that it's equivalent to the metric on $M$
What does it mean for metrics on different spaces to be equivalent?
but I was thinking $M:=\Bbb R^{1,1}$ equipped with the corresponding poincare group
well a priori, I don't know if they are different
I'm trying to show that in fact they are the same
by comparing the pseudo-euclidean metrics and checking if they are the same
What do you mean "the same"? They're not literally the same.
22:18
isomorphic I guess
They can't be isometric I suppose
Forget all your manifold structure, this is topology: If $X,Y$ are topological spaces and $f\colon X\rightarrow Y$ is a homeomorphism and $d$ is a metric on $X$, then you can transport the metric via $f$ to get a metric $d^{\prime}$ on $Y$; this metric will induce the topology on $Y$ and $f$ will then be a homeomorphism (in fact, an isometry) by construction.
are adjunction spaces usually taught in an undergrad curriculum?
@Thorgott okay that was pretty helpful
@topologicalmagician Glueing along a map is both common and useful
psa
psa
How would you parametrize a curve like |x| (or y = -x if $x \leq 0$ and y = x if $x \geq 0$) AND force the parametrization to be differentiable everywhere?
22:31
I feel like that argument can be directly applied to the geometry (when $X$ $Y$ are pseudo-euclidean manifolds with the lorentz metric) @Thorgott
but that cleared a lot of stuff up :)
that's nice
@psa you can't
psa
psa
I'm supposed to give an example of one, but that's what I thought too...
@psa sorry, I'm mistaken
it is possible
I was thinking about a regular parametrization (and that indeed would not be possible)
Think about tangents at (0,0) and what they necessarily have to look like for differentiability
22:54
How crazy is this
Exactly two rational points
Is it possible to have a curve in $\mathbb R^2$ with no rational points?
Look at thisss
Facebook has an AI division apparently
They managed to get a neural network, of the type originally designed for machine translation, to solve math equations
like differential equations
They generated problems by choosing a solution and working backwards
This was used as the training set and the testing/validation set
I don't know why no one's made an integer identity search algorithm. That would be neat. @AkivaWeinberger
Or identities with other spaces.
> Our model took the equations on the left as input — equations that both Mathematica and Matlab were unable to solve — and was able to find correct solutions (shown on the right) in less than one second.
I guess they get another billion dollars for that. While we get $0 for farting around
psa
psa
@Thorgott well they'd have to be identical on either side of the origin. I can't imagine visually how that'd be possible.
23:00
I suppose the way the problems generated affected the priors - the network got to assume it was a trapdoor problem, while CASs like Mathematica were working under the assumption that it was the sort of thing that came up naturally
Not that that diminishes anything
@Lucas (x^2+1)(y-sqrt(2))=0
(And I'm not even sure if that changes anything)
psa
psa
@Thorgott is there a way to parametrize it without using a piecewise function?
@Thorgott idk if this should be called a curve
@psa well, identical, but flipped along the y-axis. if you want your parametrization to be differentiable, those two tangents should agree however. this can only be the case if?
23:02
Machine Learning been called "fancy statistics", but with results like this, that seems harder to defend
Or at least it significantly broadens what statistics can do
Statistical metamathematics
@Lucas it's an algebraic curve
Oh, it’s just the line $y = \sqrt2$
yup
a rather trivial example, i admit
psa
psa
the direction vector of the curve is identically $\mathbf{0}$ in a neighbourhood of (0,0)?
What about a curve that has no points $(a,b):\ a\in\mathbb Q \lor b\in \mathbb Q$
$(a,b) \in \mathbb R^2$
23:05
not a neighborhood of (0,0), but definitely at (0,0)
@AkivaWeinberger can they use this to find "closed forms" of integer sequences?
psa
psa
so just define the function piecewise to be 0 at the origin?
that won't guarantee you differentiability
@Lucas shouldn't work with any sensible definition of curve because of the IVT
@ShineOnYouCrazyDiamond Maybe. The same methodology would work, I imagine - you can generate the training and testing data the same way
Make "trapdoor problems" by starting with the solution (the formula) and computing the problem (the sequence)
@AkivaWeinberger interesting!
23:08
You should read the link, it's fascinating
They should get it to find something new (and interesting to us)
There are probably an infinity of equational identities out there, just waiting for Ramanujan types or an AI to discover them
How I would do this is first have a collection of known identities, of which there are many on wikipedia.
It shouldn't have to prove those, or alternatively it could prove those and find the shortest most elegant proof
I don't think neural networks can generate proofs
In the Facebook paper, it only generated solutions
@Thorgott by curve I mean a continuous $\gamma: [a,b] \to B$
I just saw the word heuristic proof someone please explain what this means if no my current definition "half assing a proof drunk based on inductive reasoning of a collection of lemmas"
The "proofs" would consist of computing the derivative and manipulating the algebra, which I imagine would be best left to a traditional computer algebra system
23:13
Lol the AI sounds like a Ramanujan then. Didn't like creating the formal proofs
(according to the movie)
Yeah are you guys talking about eureaka? yeah I tried it when it became available it is pretty impressive
@Adam what's that
If I remember right, Ramanujan learned math from a big book of identities and Theorems without proof (basically a reference text)
so Ramanujan would read it and try to see why the identities were true and where they came from
23:15
@Lucas then the only such will be the constant curve
Why were people so smart back in the day. I think it's just the overwhelming complexity of all the available knowledge we have today
I guess he probably proved what he could, but learned intuition from all of them
its a program that takes empirical data and finds algebraic expressions (essentially curve fitting like all the CAS have been doing since the 90s) and then attempts to make logically consistent relations
it's fairly straightforward
23:16
@ShineOnYouCrazyDiamond I don’t think that’s true
@Lucas why then, was there an Euler, Gauss, Hilbert, Erdos, etc? It's because they took all the low hanging fruit from the tree of knowledge so to speak. And we're left with stuff that's nearly impossible (even for them) to discover.
far out that was link 2015 2014 ish and yeah something not cool happened to the laptop so yeah im not going to use this as a personal tragedy blog thingy but ill take a look, but ur search is as good as mine atm
I think you mean you're left with this is my excuse for half assing the rest of my life but ok
everything would be so boring if something wasn't impossible according to our present world view
any hoo
@ShineOnYouCrazyDiamond How many lived at the same time
Euler, Gauss, Hilber = 1800 - 1900's I think. Then Erdos = 1940 +
I half assed that estimate
Euler died in 1783 according to Google
23:21
It is true, however, that not using a computer to solve these complex math problems nowadays would be a bad idea
Gauss was born in 1777
They overlapped for six years
It makes me wonder what Euler would have done if he had a PC
or Emily Noether for that matter
Gauss died in 1855
Hilbert was born in 1862
Would they be better or worse than how they performed without a computer
@Akiva +/- 100 years
Hey @Ted
23:23
Greetings.
Hilbert died when Erdős was 30 so they overlapped quite a bit I guess
But Euler, Gauss, and Hilbert didn't overlap
@TedS I sent you a mail with my motivation letter
psa
psa
@Thorgott if they're flipped along the y-axis (so say one looks like $\mathbf{e_1} + \mathbf{e_2}$ and the other looks like $\mathbf{e_1} - \mathbf{e_2}$), the only way the tangents could be equal is if $\mathbf{e_2} = -\mathbf{e_2}$, which obviously can't be true... I guess I'm missing something obvious here though.
My main comment is that it confuses me because you mention two places. The essay should normally be individualized for each school, if you can.
no, the ALGANT programme as a whole works so that if you get accepted, you go to two schools
23:25
@AkivaWeinberger are you a coder?
I don't apply to individual schools
No
I learned some Python and Java
but never built anything with them
one year at the first school (in my case Regensburg) and one year at the second school (in my case Padua)
Oh, I see.
Cool.
and other than that?
23:26
@AkivaWeinberger Python is cool for GUI stuff. But C++ is still the king of speed
Python will have you finishing your app 10x faster, but in C++ your critical code will run 100x faster
You can use both at the same time (linking with a DLL from python)
I don't know why I'm telling you all this :D
Probably should put teaching stuff at the end, @Lukas.
at the end of the first paragraph or at the end of the whole letter?
Talk less about marks and more about some specifics from the seminar talks.
okay, maybe I'll mention the talk where I generalized everything from the source material which was on algebraic groups to group schemes
Toward the end of the whole thing. I don't know if you even have to teach in this Masters program. But you can use it to say how much belief the faculty there had in you.
23:29
@AkivaWeinberger what about this idea. Do you know how some apps use a node / connection approach to doing stuff. Such as Orange (Data analysis) or NodeBox (graph-driven art). Why not do the same where each node is a theorem say. A theorem would take as inputs objects that meet the required specification. Output would be a conclusion
I feel like it would blow up
And then you do combinatorial math with it (throw a bunch of nodes into a box and randomely try to connect them) similarly to combinatorial chemistry
You'd basically be searching all possible proofs until you find one that either proves or disproves what you want
That's way to many for a computer
Not quite. The above, since each input only takes what makes sense to the theorem, this is actually way more efficient than the Facebook NN solution
Supposing that their domain of application overlaps...
@TedShifrin I don't know, it messes with the logical structure if I move it around too far towards the end
23:32
OK, no big deal.
@psa It can. The derivative at (0,0) will (necessarily) be $0$. Instead of doing the obvious parametrization (t,|t|) pick a function f such that (f(t),|f(t)|) will do the job
If you wanted to apply a NN to it. You could make the NN model what a user does with those blocks and arrows
I'm not sure I understand
I don't either lol :)
psa
psa
ahh okay
psa
psa
that sounds like arc length parametrization, no?
Say I want to solve the differential equations on the left
How would I do them @ShineOnYouCrazyDiamond
You would have a bunch of nodes at least with the algebraic axioms, for example
Then some nodes would be identities known to be true
Think of a data flow network but with math objects as the data
So your program will essentially do a tree search through all algebraic manipulations that it thinks will simplify the equation?
Honestly that's probably what Mathematica and Matlab do
and the problems in the image stumped them
If Mathematica did this, then we would be presented with a user interface that shows this, but we're not
23:36
In any case this probably blows up way more than board games do
(I.e. chess algorithms essentially use tree search)
(and no Go algorithm uses tree search because it's too big)
(Well - AlphaGo uses a neural network together with Monte Carlo tree search, but the point is it's not tree search on its own)
This is a "solitaire" game rather than a two-player game but still
But, try it
Or even try it by hand for a bit
By the way
I notice that the solutions in the image aren't simplified
For example, $\exp(\sinh^{-1}(x))=\sqrt{x^2+1}+x$
Perhaps $\exp\circ\sinh^{-1}$ was easier to guess
It's certainly more likely to appear as the solution to a "trapdoor problem" than the other one
I asked a dumb question on mathoverflow like six months ago and it got 3 upvotes!
Recently got 3 upvotes?
I guess nobody could tell that it was not a good question
no not all at once
gradually
I still occasionally get upvotes for this quickie
45
A: "sup" in an equation

Akiva WeinbergerSup ("supremum") means, basically, the largest. So this: $$\sup_{k\ge0}T^{(k)}(N)$$ refers to the largest value $T^{(k)}(N)$ could get to as $k$ varies. It's technically a bit different than the maximum—it's the smallest number that is greater-than-or-equal to every number in the set. So, for e...

I guess people are searching "What does sup mean" and finding it
yeah haha
23:52
@ShineOnYouCrazyDiamond oh, I didn’t read the last part well. I mean, I think that we don’t have the same rate of discovery because of the complexity.
Howdy @Lucas
@TedShifrin I sent you a revised version
I tried to go into some more specifics and added some stuff on my undergrad thesis and the research assistant position I will have over the summer
Yeah, it looks good. Just make paragraphs into paragraphs.
Indentation, some vertical space between paragraphs. :)
Hi @Ted @Lukas
Hi, demonic @Alessandro
23:55
fixing your CV? @Mathei
Hi @Alessandro
oh yeah, I shouldn't use \\ so much
Also skip the heading before the date, @Lukas. This is included with the application, right?
@LukasHeger This is one of the capital sins of latex
You can reset parindent and parskip :P
@TedShifrin right
23:59
I sometimes do line breaks with negative height, I think I'll go to hell
The brachistochrone problem was solved in 1697. The Basel problem was solved in 1734.
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