"Suppose $f:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ and let $f^{n}$ be its $n$-fold iterate. If
$f(x)\sim x$ as $x\to 0$, is $f^{n}(x)\sim f^{n-1}(x)$? If not, what is a counterexample and what conditions on $f$ are sufficient?
This problem is motivated by the following recent question https://math.stackexchange.com/q/3510410/137524, which reduced to arguing that
$\sin(f(x))\sim f(x)$ where $f(x)$ is some iterate of $\sin x$ (and similarly for $\tan x$.)"