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20:17
How does one prove that sqrt(z) has only two branches?
(z is some complex number)
If f(z) is any other branch then it must have absolute value abs(z)^(1/2) and argument theta+2kpi?
so it must be one of the two branches -r^(1/2)*e^itheta or r^(1/2)*e^itheta
because $x^2 - z$ only has two solutions
h-principle doing it's job
(@anakhro, @Akiva)
For two branches of the same multifunction must their derivatives be the same?
no
@BalarkaSen puzzle battle?
No man
I have to write
20:30
write what
Do you have a counter example?
proof of something i want to prove
@user sqrt(z)
really? Both branches have derivative 1/(z^1/2)
@user $f(x) = x$ and $g(x) = 2x$ jointly define a multivalued function on $\Bbb R$
20:32
sorry, 1/2(z^(1/2))
the z^1/2 are different
One branch is $f$, the other branch is $g$ :P
for z=-1, you get 1/2i and -1/2i
ah right so although the formula is the same we have to specify which branch we are lookin at?
i.e. specify restrictions on the argument?
high school maths focus on formulas instead of meanings
I don't care about the formula
20:34
ok...
thanks for the help anyway
or rather, "1/(2 z^1/2)" is ambiguous, to be less cynical
precisely because z^1/2 is ambiguous
yes, I see that now. Thanks!
to render it non-ambiguous, parametrize your path as $e^{i\theta}$ with $\theta$ ranging from $\theta=0$ to $4\pi4
then you've got $e^{i\theta/2} = \cos\frac{\theta}{2}+i\sin\frac{\theta}{2}$, which is $4\pi$-periodic
$2 \tau$-periodic :P
So you do end up back where you started
20:37
Two $\tau$'s make $\pi$ so $\tau$ should be $\pi/2$
$\tau\!\tau$
Sep 7 '18 at 21:05, by Semiclassical
user image
(2 flips of the bird, at that)
I have a smooth fiber bundle $(E, M, p)$ and I have smooth sections $s_1$ and $s_2$ of $p$ over open sets $U$ and $V$ of $M$. It should be possible to glue $s_1$ and $s_2$ to a section over $U \cup V$, right? I don't see how to argue this.
What do they do on the overlap?
use the short exact sequence of sheaf
There is no sheaf, @Leaky. Fiber bundles, not vector bundles.
@Alessandro Ah, ok, without having some regularity there it's likely not possible. In my case $s_1$ and $s_2$ are very close on $U \cap V$
So I can argue by saying locally the fiber bundle is an affine bundle $\Bbb R^n \times \Bbb R^k \to \Bbb R^n$
By choosing charts
Then a bump function in that box neighborhood explicitly. Very messy.
20:44
why is there no sheaf?
What is the sheaf bro
It's not clear to me what do you expect $s_1\cup s_2$ to be on the overlap
smooth sections
@LeakyNun Well what the fuck are those? They are not R-algebras or anything
sets
I just mean that you can always glue two functions together as long as they agree on the overlap
and the new function will be smooth
20:45
$s_1$ and $s_2$ do not agree on the overlap bro
and a section
@AlessandroCodenotti You can always choose charts near eg $s_1(M) \subset E$ such that the bundle looks like $\Bbb R^n \times \Bbb R^k \to \Bbb R^n$ by a change of coordinates, and your sections are graphs of functions $\Bbb R^n \to \Bbb R^k$, so we can do a bump function argument there
I think that works at least. In my context $U$ and $V$ are actually chart neighborhoods not massive open sets, so local interpolation by a bump function should suffice
Very messy coordinate-wise argument though
So what do you do if the accepted answer for a question is wrong?
20:50
you ask Joe to delete the answer
The key point is $s_1$ and $s_2$ are $\varepsilon$-close on $U \cap V$, I guess. It's of course false otherwise: take eg a disconnected cover of $X$ and two sections on two different components
You can even do that with connected fibers but whatever
If they are "far apart" I can't interpolate
who is Joe
Hi @Ted
rehi, a @Balarka
What is @Alessandro bundling today?
Hi @Ted
I'm looking at websites of universities to find places to apply to for a phd
20:54
Oh, I saw mumbling about fiber bundles.
I'm also reading some stuff about C*-algebras
That was by Balarka
@TedShifrin I was wondering if a non-messy argument exists to interpolate between two sections of a smooth fiber bundle $(E, M, p)$ over open sets $U, V$ which are very close in the overlap $U \cap V$
Oh, it's Balarka's fault, as usual.
What are the fibers and what does "very close" mean?
20:55
@TedShifrin would you have a picture of Mobius strip x [0,1]?
LOL, are you still beating that dead drum?
It's not going to be embedded in $\Bbb R^3$, of course.
it also does not have an immersion to R^3
but maybe we can have something close to being an immersion
Didn't Balarka already talk to you about folds and cusps and whatnot
Personally I don't see that those help me think of the Mobius strip x I
You can take the usual parametrization of a Möbius strip and add a parameter for an interval perpendicular to the ruling.
I just think of a bunch of parallel shifts of the Mobius strip, where I forget that they intersect
20:58
For the longest time, Leaky wouldn't admit it was non-orientable.
I do the same
Ted just doesn't think.
It's hard to come up with a definition of orientability for which the Mobius band isn't obviously non-orientable
@TedShifrin Fibers are smooth manifolds. Assume $U$ and $V$ are trivializing open sets; by very close over $U \cap V$ I mean the maps $U \cap V \to F$ are $\varepsilon$-close.
I guess the Hatcher definition would be hard
Unless you are also allowed PD with it
20:59
by picture I just mean jpg
I can draw a bunch of parallel Mobius strip as a clusterfuck in paint and give you a jpg if you want Leaky
@Balarka: What if the diffeomorphism group of $F$ is very small?
that actually doesn't work because the Mobius strip is non-orientable... (which direction would you start?)
Can you write a proof in the case of a vector bundle or principal bundle?
What
Diffeomorphism groups are never small
21:01
I guess I was thinking in the complex analytic category, where they are typically very small.
@TedShifrin yeah vector bundle is easy and you don't need the epsilon-close condition
you can trivialize and then patch by a bump function
for usual shapes you can put a copy "slightly above" the original and think of it as the shape x [0,1]
@BalarkaSen Put a fiberwise Riemannian metric on the total space and use logarithm to interpolate
there's no "above" for Mobius strip
@MikeMiller Ah, that's cute.
21:03
There is a map Nbhd(Diag) -> M on any Riemannian manifold M sending a pair of points to the midpoint of a geodesic between them
Seems smooth
Might need some fiddling since the metric is fiber dependent
Yes this should definitely work
@LeakyNun sure it works i just stack them one upon another mercilessly
there is above in the page in ms paint
get used to thinking of the y-axis as the extra 4th dimension
I found this online
and is probably what you mean
Here's another puzzle: What does suspension on the Mobius strip look like?
It's some clustermess which has $S^2$ as "boundary" (note that it's not a manifold by the way)
If you fill that $S^2$ with a $3$-ball you get $S(\Bbb{RP}^2)$
hello, can someone help me understand where my mistake is in implementing a formula? apparently I don't understand how to find the pressure gradient at a point in my fluid simulation
the spatial derivative is giving me weird numbers
or is this not the place for this kind of question?
21:23
@SimplyBeautifulArt long time no see
@BalarkaSen What does an answer look like here
@LeakyNun I would hope you see more often then
have you brought new collapse functions
I have, of course
lol
it's 7 days too early
21:24
Simply Beautiful you answered or at least gave me a hint on my question this afternoon
indeed it is
@MikeMiller I have no clue, I just said it to stop Leaky from pestering
I might've but I don't remember you so...
I was googling and found some massive paper which computes the homotopy groups of $\Sigma^n \Bbb{RP}^2$
lol
nerds
21:29
If anyone's bored, try making the biggest number you can in only 69 symbols using:
    0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9,
    +, -, *, /, ^,
    ?, : (ternary),
    &, | (logical operators),
    <=> (comparisons/assignments),
    () (parentheses),
    and variable names (1 symbol per variable name)
@SimplyBeautifulArt nice
and yes definitely nerds
id put this in the same category as homotopy groups of suspensions of RP^2
a(x, y=x, z=x) = x*y*z<0 ? z+9 : a(x-1, z, a(x, y-1, a(x, y, z-1)))
a(a(a(a(a(9)))))
why 69 symbols
21:31
>.> that being the biggest I came up with
what was going on in your mind when you thought of this
Because it's the sex number bro
What's the largest number you can make in only 42069 symbols
What was going on was it needed to be around 50 so it wasn't too long but more than 50 so that you could actually do stuff with it
cmon algebro
21:32
@Simply that was not what was going on clearly
@MikeMiller <spam ordinal collapsing functions here>
@BalarkaSen sure it was
$\newcommand{cof}{\operatorname{cof}{}}$

Cofinalities assuming normal forms:

$\cof(n)=\min\{n,1\}$

$\cof(\Omega_\alpha)=\cof(\alpha),~\cof(\alpha)>1$

$\cof(\Omega_\alpha)=\Omega_\alpha,~\cof(\alpha)\le1$

$\cof(\psi_\pi(\alpha))=\omega,~\cof(\alpha)\notin\pi\setminus\{0,1\}$

$\cof(\psi_\pi(\alpha))=\cof(\alpha),~\cof(\alpha)\in\pi\setminus\{0,1\}$

Fundamental sequences assuming normal forms:

$\Omega_\alpha[\gamma]=\Omega_{\alpha[\gamma]},~\cof(\alpha)>1$

$\Omega_\alpha[\gamma]=\gamma,~\cof(\alpha)\le1$
Also speaking of ordinal collapsing functions, there's a quick thing involving ordinal collapsing functions
also that it uses some not-so-standard notation but it's surprisingly simple
@Simple somehow I remember this other simple person
Also is there any benefit to exponentiation by squaring using $a^{2n}=(a^n)^2$ instead of $(a^2)^n$? The latter is better for tail recursion or loops
Hi chat
Hi, but I'm simple not chat
Also I recently learned about complimentary linear programming and how to convert equality constraints into minimization subproblems which was cool I guess.
Would it be desirable to have a space of points...transcendental points...of the form $(\Bbb T, \Bbb T)$ s.t. these particular points...can be multiplied to remain in such space?
Lol it was in a linear optimization class, and for the final project, my group had to be that one group to pick a problem from like the last chapter of the book. The problem looked like a linear problem but became quadratic x.x
@Ultradark isn't that just part of the definition of a vector space?
21:46
@SimplyBeautifulArt I was thinking of adding an identity element of $(1,1)$ and trying to make a group or something
and of course (1,1) would be the only non transcendental number
uh sure I guess
@Simple wait didn't you ask me about tetration and stuff?
Also recently got into Baba is You, would highly recommend for anyone into puzzles.
okay I got it
So we have points of the form $(e^{\Bbb {-A}}, e^{\Bbb {-A}})$ and also points of the form $(e^{\Bbb A}, e^{\Bbb A})$ and the identity is $(1,1)$
binary operation is multiplication
associativity holds
anything wrong so far?
22:16
@Ultradark How can it be a group or whatever if it doesn't contain the identity.
I guess the only point not being transcendental would be the identity?
why do people use exp(x) for $e^x$?
it's like the most annoying thing in the world
emphasis on it being a function opposed to an operation
Also sometimes makes it clearer to write (if you have a lot in the exponent)
@Ultradark also how do you define multiplication? if component-wise wouldn't you get something like $(a,b)$ where a is transcendental but b=1 etc.
if you have a lot in the exponent that's a good time to just declare another function and write it out in the following line
22:25
@J.Doe hmm good question... here's my set: My set consists of points $X=\{(e^{\Bbb {-A}},e^{\Bbb {-A}}), (e^{\Bbb {A}}, e^{\Bbb A}),(1,1)\}.$
and let me see about multiplication...
you think I could do the Cartesian product?
and combine the points that way?
@Adam no it doesn't? Sure there's a point where you should move it all out, but the point is that $e^{-x^{2n+1}\arctan(x)}$ is hard to read while $\exp(-x^{2n+1}\arctan(x))$ is not, due to sizing.
Also if you have several superscripts/subscripts, it can be really unclear.
@Ultradark Are you familiar with direct products? I think you might be interested in something like that. But anyway transcedental numbers don't have closure, so you wouldn't have closure (or identity).
But there's still no need to rewrite it into another function
@SimplyBeautifulArt I don't remember that
@J.Doe but all of the transcendental numbers are of the same class so they would have closure I think
22:31
I like $\exp(X)$. It has certain class and sophistication to it.
@Simple hmmmmmm but I remember you >.>
@Ultradark I don't know what that means. But if $a, b$ are transcendental is $ab$ transcendental?
so $\Bbb A$
is any algebraic number
by exponentiating with the same base $e$
it means we can keep $e$ as the base and add the algebraic numbers
meaning the result will still be $e^{\Bbb A}$
which is transcendental
by Lindemann-Weirstrauss theorem
@SimplyBeautifulArt you know you have a zoom function on most applications right? people using that will make exp usage go extinct and increase adam happiness
@Ultradark Damn I'm out of my depth now lol
22:41
@Adam you know that doesn't change the fact that the superscripts and subscripts will have different sizes than the base(?) and zooming in will just make it harder to read everything else instead?
@Ultradark Teach me the proof of this theorem
I mean the statement of the theorem is just that the exponential raised to a non zero algebraic number is transcendental
I'm pretty much just using the result I don't understand the whole theorem in all its depth
transcendental number theory is very difficult
If you have a lottery card that has a 50% chance of winning you $200, is it worth $100?
22:57
@JBis: Well, your expected pay-off is $100, so would you pay $100 for that?
Probably not.
"On the average" if you do this a bunch of times, you will break even.
so it is worth the same (not including future value stuff)
I was looking at this relevant video on expected profit.
I'm not going to watch a video.
$E(x) = P(win)(200-100) + P(loose)(-100) = 1/2(100) + 1/2(-100) = 0$
23:02
Well technically speaking if you know the expected pay-off is how much you pay, and you can repeatedly play, then wouldn't it make sense to play it until you win more than lose and then call it quits?
@TedShifrin I was just providing link so people know where I got the math I just put
@Ultradark I kinda understand the statement of the theorem. Not sure if it helps you though. But it's also a waste of time since you don't even have an identity lol.
@SimplyBeautifulArt I agree with that.
OK, @JBis.
guhhh the sound of getting mentioned
23:03
Of course, you could be in the hole thousands of dollars before your start to see pay-offs.
People often misunderstand the law of large numbers and say "I'm due" ...
Yeah of course
but in the long run you expect to exceed 50/50 sometimes in something like this
just like how you can expect to go below 50/50
Also the longer you play the shorted the expected deviations from 50/50 become
by strong law
So, if you're infinitely wealthy, would you pay for the privilege of breaking even? :D
it might not be worth being in the hole of thousands of dollars to finally get it equalize and never get more than thousand and one dollar
0
Q: Natural polynomial maps

Shine On You Crazy DiamondLet $f,g : \Bbb{N} \to \Bbb{N}$ be given by polynomial maps such as $f(n) = n(n+2)$. How does one prove that if for sufficiently large $n$ if $f(n) = 1$ then $f(n) = 1$ is the constant function?

23:06
lol, but what I mean is it's not breaking even if you quit while you're ahead
If $f(n)$ is a natural polynomial map and $f(n) = 1$ for some large $n$ then the function is constant, right?
77
Q: Why did my friend lose all his money?

KonerakNot sure if this is a question for math.se or stats.se, but here we go: Our MUD (Multi-User-Dungeon, a sort of textbased world of warcraft) has a casino where players can play a simple roulette. My friend has devised this algorithm, which he himself calls genius: Bet 1 gold If you win, bet 1 ...

"...which he himself calls genius" lol.
@Shine: It's not really a great question. A polynomial of degree $n$ can only take on a value $n$ times. If it happens more than that, the polynomial doesn't have degree $n$ at all — it's constant.
@TedShifrin If you loose 1000 times, you have no better chance of winning right?
If everyone played the coin flipping game and quit once they had more heads than tails, would the global actual value be greater than 0.5, where heads = 1 and tails = 0?
23:07
Nope, @JBis.
@TedShifrin do you have a link or proof for that?
It's in every high school or college algebra book.
What proposition?
Is it named?
Every root corresponds to a factor.
Root-factor theorem.
23:09
@Ted did you just make that up
I make everything up.
lol
In algebra, the factor theorem is a theorem linking factors and zeros of a polynomial. It is a special case of the polynomial remainder theorem.The factor theorem states that a polynomial f ( x ) {\displaystyle f(x)} has a factor ( x − k ) {\displaystyle (x-k)} if and only if f ( k ) = 0 {\displaystyle f(k)=0} (i.e. k {\displaystyle k...
My books are all full of untruths.
23:10
It's called the factor theorem, not the root factor theorem :P
The linear algebra answer I just posted I made up, too.
@TedShifrin that doesn't apply here I don't think
Nah, it usually is called root-factor theorem in the US. I dunno about globally. Wiki is not a God.
I didn't know it had a name
damn
@TedShifrin I don't get it.
Well, ask @Balarka, @Shine. He says I make everything up.
$f(n) = $ some polynomial that takes only natural values
@TedShifrin Hey, I was just surprised you came up with a name for that theorem so quickly!
That actually is not relevant. No polynomial can have infinitely many roots.
I thought that each instance is individual and doesn't effect each other
23:12
@Balarka: Truth be told — it's in my algebra book (because future teachers need to actually understand it ... not to mention math majors).
@JBis: That's right. So what happens on the 1000th time is not influenced by the fact that you lost the first 999 times.
True, people suck at basic algebra, and roots corresponding to linear factors is foundational
You still have a 50/50 chance of winning.
I use it everyday while doing field theory exercises
5 mins ago, by JBis
@TedShifrin If you loose 1000 times, you have no better chance of winning right?
@Balarka: The usual misapplication is to say that every reducible polynomial must have a root :P
23:13
you said nope
@JBis: This is an English issue.
@JBis You have no better chance of winning but no worse chance either :P
When you ask a negative question, how one answers it is ambiguous.
what
23:14
The chance of winning is not affected by how many times you play the game, as pointed out by Ted
You didn't eat lunch today, did you? No, I didn't. Yes, I didn't? No one says that.
2
It's always a constant 50/50
Hahah
Language.
@TedShifrin Yes because the question itself is "did you eat lunch today"
> , did you [eat lunch today]?
No, the question had a not ... That's entirely my point.
Rephrase your winning question, then, to make it clear.
And it's LOSE, not loose. :P
<--- in an assish mood now.
23:16
savage
LOL, you know you miss me when you're gone, @Balarka :D
I do, this chat feels like home, tbh, however weird that sounds
so if expected profit is positive it is worth it, if it is negative it is not?
That's what I would say, yes, @JBis.
And your question was right on the dividing line.
who chose this sound for pings
wth
@J.Doe good question
cool
thanks!
23:18
Sure :)
Off to vegas with my newfound knowledge
cya o/
LOL
Gone
Your newfound knowledge should tell you not to go to Vegas tho
wow, it's getting late in Alessandro land.
After two probability courses a friend of mine says if you toss a coin 99 times and get tails it's very likely you'll get heads in the 100th toss
23:21
Tell your friend he would have flunked my course :P
Hahah
To be honest I get where he's coming from; he's subtly thinking about a larger probability space in his head whereas he should really be thinking about the probability space of the next toss
The event that he got 99 consecutive tails is itself the unlikely one
That has nothing to do with the next toss ofc
The other thing that some of my students never got, even though a student asked about it and I discussed it carefully (and then put it on the final) is: What's the probability that I draw the king of spades given that someone has already removed a card from the deck?
That's probably the most common mistake in all of probability theory.
@TedShifrin I'm becoming a real mathematician, I read papers instead of sleeping now
Wow, @Alessandro. Are you a chain-smoker like Balarka, too? :D
23:24
Nah that's awful for your health, I just do methamphetamines to suppress the need for sleep instead
Oh, that reassures me.
That's what a real mathematician does?
Let's say a real student
But you're an imaginary student.
23:25
You'll be in a real hospital very soon
Can you think of any words with an "ibe" sound other than "fiber"
Meth is bad for you, just do plain amphetamines
Also "ige" other than "tiger"
@BalarkaSen That's genius
23:26
Oh lol, I read it as "math" rather than "meth"
Face of amphetamines
Oh, "gigantic"
DogAteMy: libel and liable
Thanks
"(S)iberia"
"Cyber"
@BalarkaSen Aka Adderall?
23:29
"Migraine"
iger, eager
:3
Is that a word?
23:30
close
@BalarkaSen alternatively he could think that the coin is biased ----
actually unrelated to jive afaik
@loch Yeah that's what, the 99 consecutive tails is unlikely in the probability space of 99 coin tosses
Somehow the brain extrapolates biasedness from that I guess
Max
Max
Would anyone be so kind as to give me a hint on part B of this problem? Part A is trivial if you recognize the combination on the bottom as chi-squared. But for part B, the same trick doesn’t work because the numerator and denominator are dependent.
23:32
@BalarkaSen Now I need to listen to F#A#$\infty$ though
Max
Max
I can’t use the mgf technique because I can’t manage to push $Z_1$ and $Z_2$ into separate fractions. The best idea I had was to use the cdf technique; so far I’ve gotten to $F(v) = P(Z_1 \leq \sqrt{(Z_1^2 + Z_2^2)/2 v} = 2P([1-v^2 /2 ]Z_1^2 - Z_2^2 =leq 0)$. On the left, we have a linear combination of squared standard normals. Chi-squared is a sum of squared standard normals, so is there a generalization of chi-squared that gives this … ? I think I must just be missing some insight.
Humans are statistical creatures
should write a paper on that
Max
Max
Last eq should read: $2P([1-v^2 /2 ]Z_1^2 - Z_2^2) \leq 0)$
"Why students are bad at probability: A socio-statistical explanation"
Get a lot of data and manipulate the p-value a little above 0.05 just to be extra cheeky
The socio statistical explanation probably comes down to the fact that they can't add fractions
Fix that and you're off to a good start
23:37
suddenly probability > 1
@Max it might help to note that $(Z_1^2+Z_2^2)/2$ is Exp(1)-distributed
Max
Max
@Thorgott That's how you do part A, but I don't see how that helps in part B, given that the numerator isn't independent of the denominator.
hmm, maybe separate into positive and negative part and then rewrite $Z_1$ as $\pm\sqrt{Z_1^2}$ and crank the algebra machine?
Write down the join distribution and use the multiplicative convolution formula
There's maybe an easier way. Write Z_1 = R cos Theta, Z_2 = R sin Theta where R has the Rayleigh distribution and Theta has the Unif(0, 2pi) distribution, and R, Theta are independently distributed.
Then Z_1/sqrt((Z_1^2 + Z_2^2)/2) = sqrt(2) * cos(Theta)
23:54
31 mins ago, by Ted Shifrin
The other thing that some of my students never got, even though a student asked about it and I discussed it carefully (and then put it on the final) is: What's the probability that I draw the king of spades given that someone has already removed a card from the deck?
hmm...
(I haven't written down all the details, but the approach I suggested appears to work without too much effort)
It's direct from what I said, all you need to figure is pdf of cos(U) where U ~ Unif(0, 2pi)
You need to differentiate cos^-1, which is why you get square root etc in the answer
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