Let $f : H \to G$ be a Lie group homomorphism, and $\alpha_{v} : \Bbb{R} \to H$ that unique one parameter subgroup such that $\dot{\alpha}_{v}(0)=v$. How do I compute $\frac{d}{dt} \big|_{t=0} f(\alpha_{v}(t))$?
We have this functor $L$ which I'm not sure how to define. I want to show that $\frac{d}{dt} \big|_{t=0} f(\alpha_{v}(t)) = Lfv$, but I don't see how to compute the derivative...I need some sort of chain rule.
All I know is that $L$ is a map from the Lie algebra $LH$ associated to $H$ to the Lie algebra $LG$ associated to $G$.
If a geometer is present, I'd like to know on Riemannian Manifold, we have connection and hence covariant differentiation. Then what is the use of Lie Derivative? As covariant differentiation is more precise.
@Hawk Vector fields are very crucial in manifolds. Given one vector field you want to know how another vector field "flows" with respect to the other. Here you need the Lie derivative
Note that you need to define a connection to make sense of the covariant derivative. A lie derivative doesn't need that.
@SayanChattopadhyay and covariant derivative does not tell you how vector field flow wrt another? I am just asking because on a Riemannian manifold the covariant derivative seems to completely replace Lie derivative.
@Hawk they encode different sets of information(Though there's a formulae relating the two). For instance consider the fact that any connection compatible with the metric should satisfy $\Del_{X}g = 0$. This means that tangent vectors along X a flowing in a manner such that the metric on them remains the same. Whereas there are tons and tons of vector fields such that $L_{X}g \neq 0$. If it were it would mean that it's a killing vector field and generates an isometry.
@AlessandroCodenotti write $f$ as a pointwise limit of simple functions and use that every Lebesgue measurable set is a union of a Borel set and a null set. I think this should work out
This actually raise a much deeper question about exploring mathematics and the connection between formal mathematics and recreational mathematics:
> Given a mode of presentation $P$ of a problem $q$ with deep theorems $d$, which has artefacts $A$ such that there is some map $f$ where $f(A)=d$, how to find such $P, A$
In this particular case, it just happens the geometric artifact of the topology of a circle allows the residual classes, which is part of dirichlet's theorem to be singled out because they force the mathematical concidence $\frac{a}{b}\approx n\pi$
Likewise, we saw very similar things happening in $\Bbb{R}^2$ such as how certain curves can compute transcendentals while others cannot, and how certain family of lines can be used to prove a cantor diagonal theorem of the cardinality of $\Bbb{R}^2$
The very act of visualising mathematical problems, actually imposes a constraint $P$ onto the problem $q$ such that $P(q)$ contains artefacts which contains parts of the underlying deep theorem
Alright, that's more clear, at least. You've probably been given a description of what x is supposed to represent, but, without that, the best we can give you is what we would suspect x to represent
Which I would say, in agreement with Astyx, is the cartesian product. After all, both A and B are sets and, if they were vectors, they are of mismatched dimensions and so multiplication doesn't make sense.
Unless of course A is meant to be a column vector, in which case AxB would be a 2x1 matrix multiplied by a 1x3 matrix
But if they are expressed as sets, then I'd still favor the cartesian product
This might be a very stupid, and possibly philosophical question, but attempt to apply mathematics to everything plus inspired by this question caused me to ask this question
Is there any mathematical object that has been proved to exist but cannot be described in words?
If the answer is...
The logarithm function is a multiple-valued function when it takes complex arguments, so you'll have to be careful and define what you mean by logx in this case. I'm not even sure that well-defined exponential and logarithm functions exist when you go to the quaternions and octonion
Let's say you have a spatial network, and when you zoom in on one of the vertices, you actually find another spatial network, and when you zoom in on one of the vertices of that spatial network you find another spatial network, and so on.
I'm not sure how to capture the notion of "zooming in." I...
Background: Wikipedia: the smallest grammar problem
Now imagine there were a space representing all ways you could subdivide an arbitrary strings $S = abcdefg\dots z$ (not necc. 26 letters), using parentheses, and for the sake of computing smallest grammars. So for instance splitting $(ab)$ fur...
@Alessandro we had the first Iwasawa theory talk today, at the end I'm getting my hands ready to clap and everyone just starts hitting the table, felt so cultish hahaha
Given a transformation $F$ that projects onto $\text{im} \ F$ along $\text{ker} \ F$, to find the equation of the plane that is projected onto (i.e. $\text{im} \ F$), one can find the kernel of $\text{ker} \ F-I$, since this is equal to $\text{ker} \ I-F = \text{im} \ F$. However, if given the matrix of $F$, would this be equivalent to determines the number of column vectors of the matrix that are linearly independent and write them into a parametric equation for the plane?
I spent 40+ years grading a lot, @Rithaniel, but I considered it an important part of my job, even though most professors don't grade much (especially in Europe).
I graded homeworks and exams for all my upper-level courses.
I talked with the professor supervising the seminar, should be doable to prepare it in a couple of weeks, I just need to go through this short set theory paper
Suppose $F\colon \Bbb R\times\Bbb R\to[0,\infty)$ is such that for almost all $x$, $F_x$ and $F^x$ are measurable and such that the functions $x\mapsto\int F_x dx$ and $y\mapsto \int F^ydy$ are measurable. Must the two iterated integrals be equal?
The main thing is that it doesn't ask for $F$ to be measurable
Usually measure theory books include the following theorem (citing Proposition 5.1.3 in Cohn's measure theory book)
Let $(X, \mathcal A , \mu )$ and $(Y, \mathcal B, \nu )$ be $\sigma$-finite measure spaces. If $E$ belongs to the $\sigma$-algebra $\mathcal{A}\times\mathcal{B}$, then the funct...
@TedShifrin If given a vector space $V$ that is the direct sum of $U'$ and $U''$, and given $\textbf{u} \in V$, then the unique vectors $\textbf{u'}$ and $\textbf{u''}$ such that $\textbf{u}=\textbf{u'}+\textbf{u''}$ are called the projections of $\textbf{u}$ on $U'$ and $U''$ respectively.
Anyway it's easy to construct models of ZFC in which that theorem fails (any model of CH will do), my talk will be about this result of Friedman in which he constructed a model where the theorem holds
No, @dondeman. I don't know what you're reading. Here $p$ is a factor of the constant term and $q$ is a factor of $1$, the coefficient of $p^3$. So you're dividing $\pm (1,2,4,8)$ by $1$.
@schn: You have the answer from what you wrote (and what I wrote just up there).
@Alessandro I think the relevant conjecture was something about the $p$ primary part of the class group of some number field was always elementary abelian
and for every prime less than that bound it's true
@TedShifrin If $U'$ is given the equation $x_1+x_2+x_3=0$, that equation determines if a point belongs to the plane and the normal vector to the plane.
@TedShifrin Right, if one knows the linear independent vectors that span the subspace, one also has a parametric system of equations, which one could solve for a single equation.
@TedShifrin Every plane can be represented by an equation of the form $ax+by+cz+d=0$, where $x,y,z$ are the components of the coordinate vectors in 3-space. Isn't this equation derived from a system of equations, where each coordinate $x,y,z$ is expressed in terms of parameters $r,t \in \textbf{R}$?
Last question, will write this here and not as a graphic question. Given a set of linearly independent vectors $ S = (v1, v2, v3, v4, v5) $ and u1 to u5 is given as $u1 = v1$, $u2 = -v1 + v2 $ , $u3 = v1 - v2 + v3$, $u4 = -v1 + v2 -v3 + v4$ , $u5 = v1 - v2 + v3 - v4 + v5$. How can I show that $ T = (u1, u2, u3, u4 , u5) $ is a set of linearly independent vectors as well?
My first thought was the zero vector, but I guess that is not relevant here
If $f$ is odd on some real interval centered at $0$ and we're given the Fourier sine series for $f$, then integrating the series term by term will yield the cosine series for an antiderivative of $f$ on that interval (assuming the function is polite enough for all this)
But how does the initial term $a_0$ come about :thonk: Indeed, ignoring it and just integrating the sines will leave the series function off by that much
@dondeman: You have to start with the obligatory sentence: "Suppose $c_1u_1+\dots+c_5u_5=0$. I must show that $c_1=\dots=c_5=0$." You might find some of my lectures on YouTube helpful. For this, see lecture 35.
You're getting the general odd function as a sine series and the general even function as a cosine series. The particular coefficients depend, of course, on the particular function.
Quick question for the map from a ring $A$ to its prime localization $A_p$ defined by $a\mapsto a/1$ why does the maximal ideal of $A_p$ have preimage p?
I can’t see that immediately although I know I can prove it using the fact that the image of $A-p$ are all units in $A_p$.
Sorry about the notation above: $p$ denotes a prime ideal in $A$.
Thank you for the reply. Yes that makes sense to me. I came up with this question after reading a proof in Atiyah’s Intro to commutative algebra. It goes as follows: