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05:56
Hey can some one help me in puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/86116/… Not related to high level math but interesting
 
4 hours later…
09:48
If $m$ is square free odd positive integer, then $x^2 \equiv a \pmod{m}$ has $\prod_{p|m}(1+\left(\frac{a}{p}\right) )$ solutions.
Can I say since $m$ is square free we can write $m = p_1p_2 \cdots p_n$; so we have $x^2 \equiv a \pmod{p_i}$ for $i =1,2, \cdots n$.
Since $p_i$ are odd, by Euler's criterion whenever $(a, p_i) = 1$ each of these has either $2 = 1+1$ solutions or $0= 1-1$ solutions;that's, $1+\left(\frac{a}{p_i}\right)$ solutions. So in total the equation has $\prod_{i=1}^{n}\left (1+\left(\frac{a}{p_i}\right) \right)=\prod_{p|m}\left (1+\left(\frac{a}{p}\right) \right)$ solutions.
@J.Doe "and since $p_i$ are distinct, solutions to $x^2 \equiv a \pmod m$ correspond bijectively to solutions to $x^2 \equiv a \pmod {p_i}$"
Right, I'm missing the $p_i$ that divide $a$; so I divide the final product by $\prod_{p_i|a}(1+\left(\frac{a}{p_i}\right) ) = 1$ as the then the symbol is $0$.
@LeakyNun Does it all sound right? With your addition.
Good man, thanks.
10:22
@MatheinBoulomenos $V$ is smooth at $p$ iff $\mathcal O_{V,p}$ is integrally closed?
@LeakyNun if $V$ is a curve, at least
why on earth?
actually could you remind me of the definition of the former
hello how to prove the continuity of exp with the $\varepsilon-\delta$ definition
@PolineSandra prove that in general power series is smooth in their radius of convergence, lol
@LeakyNun it's a bit technical. Is $V$ a variety? For a one-dimensional Noetherian ring, being regular is equivalent to being a DVR
10:27
@PolineSandra but if you just want to do it for exp, prove that it is continuous at zero first, and then use the fact that $\exp(x+y) = \exp(x) \exp(y)$
how it is zero?
@MatheinBoulomenos let's say $V$ is a closed subvariety of $\Bbb A^2$
@PolineSandra I fixed the typo to "it is continuous at zero"
$exp(x)<\varepsilone $ how to find delta ?
ln(\varepsilone)
but for $|\exp(x)-\exp(x_0)|$??
@LeakyNun If $V=V(f_1,f_2)$, then you can look at the Jacobian matrix of $(f_1,f_2)$
@MatheinBoulomenos surely $V=V(f)$
$V(f_1, f_2)$ would be $0$-dimensional right
10:34
oh right
then you can just look at where the partial derivatives simultanously vanish
and that's the definition of singular?
sounds right
how on earth is it connected to integral closed
For a commutative ring $R$, a standard smooth $R$-algebra is an $R$-algebra of the form $S=R[x_1, \dots,x_n]/(f_1, \dots, f_n)$ such that the determinant $\det (\partial f_i /\partial x_j)$ is an invertible element in $S$. A morphism of schemes $f:X \to Y$ is smooth at $x \in X$ if there are open affine neighborhoods $U \supset x, V \supset f(x)$ such that $f(U) \supset V$ and the induced map $U \to V$ comes from a standard smooth algebra
@LeakyNun it's related to tangent spaces, first of all
@LeakyNun? $|\exp(x)-\exp(x_0)|<\exp(x)+\exp(x_0)$ how to continue?
10:38
at the singular points, the tangent space is two-dimensional, at the smooth points, the tangent space is just one-dimensional
@PolineSandra $|\exp(x) - \exp(x_0)| = \exp(x_0)|\exp(x-x_0)-\exp(0)|$
which reduces the problem to the case at $0$
recall that the tangent space is the dual vector space of $\mathfrak{m}_x/\mathfrak{m}_x^2$
@MatheinBoulomenos I'm 50% convinced
if the partial derivatives vanish then why isn't the tangent space zero lol
isn't the tangent space spanned by the partial derivatives
oooo right I will try it
@MatheinBoulomenos what is $\mathfrak m_x$?
10:41
the maximal ideal of the stalk at $x$
@LeakyNun no, it's basically dual to the partial derivatives I think
@LeakyNun The tangent space is kernel of the Jacobian man
It's a level curve
This is calculus lol
we can also say that a point is singular if $\mathrm{dim} _{k}\mathfrak{m}_x/\mathfrak{m}_x^2 > \mathrm{dim}(V)$
If $f : \Bbb R^2 \to \Bbb R$ with $0$ as regular value, then tangent space to $f^{-1}(0)$ at $x$ is $\ker df_x$. Jesus Christ.
So you define the same thing with algebraic functions except non-smoothness will increase the dimension of tangent space now
let's say $\gamma \subseteq f^{-1}(0)$
so $f \circ \gamma = 0$
10:48
so suppose that $(R,\mathfrak{m})$ is a Noetherian one-dimensional local ring such that $\mathfrak{m}/\mathfrak{m}^2$ is one-dimensional over $R/\mathfrak{m}$, then you can show by some commutative algebra that $(R,\mathfrak{m})$ is a DVR
so $\mathrm df_x(\gamma(0)) = 0$ or something like that
2
Q: equivalent characterizations of discrete valuation rings

MatheinBoulomenosLet $R$ be a commutative ring with identiy, then the following are equivalent: $R$ is a DVR $R$ is a local Euclidean domain that is not a field. $R$ is a local PID that is not a field. $R$ is a local Dedekind domain that is not a field. $R$ is a UFD with a unique irreducible element up to a uni...

ok it makes sense why it is $\ker \mathrm df_x$ lol
(9) is the condition that $\mathfrak{m}/\mathfrak{m}^2$ is one-dimensional over $R/\mathfrak{m}$
A regular local ring is surely integrally closed, yes/
10:50
yes, but the other direction may fail
Of course.
but in dimension 1 we get equivalence
Aha.
Right, Weierstrass preparation theorem
They are all DVRs
@Leaky does this answer your question?
I have a question regarding the first comment under math.stackexchange.com/questions/1149288/…. It states that the boundary of the closed cylinder $C$ is $S^1 \times \{0,1\}$. But with what topology on $C$? Even if I consider $C$ as embedded (thus a subset) in $\mathbb{R}^3$, then it is closed and has no inner points; thus the boundary is the whole thing.
10:53
Because ring of germs of an algebraic curve at a point has a uniformizer $t$, in the sense that every element is like $t^k$ times a unit ($t$ is the parametrizing variable for the curve).
@MatheinBoulomenos so basically... $V$ is smooth at $x$ iff the tangent space at $x$ is 1-dimensional iff the stalk is DVR iff the stalk is integrally closed?
@LeakyNun right
@Nemo this is not boundary in the topological sense, but in the manifold sense
a manifold is a topological space locally homeomorphic to $\Bbb R^n$ or $\Bbb H^n$
the points where it is locally homeomorphic to $\Bbb H^n$ are the boundary points of the manifold
@MatheinBoulomenos the last two steps seem a bit magical but ok
A manifold is always locally homeomorphic to $\Bbb R^n$. A manifold-with-boundary is locally homeomorphic to either $\Bbb R^n$ or $\Bbb H^n$.
@LeakyNun See my uniformizer comment.
@LeakyNun "magic" aka commutative algebra
10:56
@LeakyNun Then, does this still answer the question if they are non-homeomorphic as topological spaces?
@BalarkaSen what's the uniformizer of $V(X^2-Y^3)$ at $(0,0)$?
@Balarka I think I figured out why if we take the Zariski-Riemann space of the field of meromorphic functions on a compact Riemann surface $X$, then the initial topology that makes all meromorphic on it continuous wrt the analytical topology on $\widehat{\Bbb C}$, then it is homeomorphic to $X$
@LeakyNun Smooth curve. That curve isn't smooth at $(0, 0)$.
$k[X,Y]/(X^2-Y^3)$ localized at $(X,Y)$ is not a DVR
$x^2 - y^3 = 0$ is parametrized rationally by $(t^3, t^2)$. This $t$ is the uniformizer at all smooth points, basically.
10:58
I see
@MatheinBoulomenos Nice!! I really liked that construction, but had hard time following it in Hartshorne
If you have a singular curve, Zariski-Riemann space defines the normalization, IIRC
So let $Y$ be the Zariski-Riemann space of $\mathcal{M}(X)$ equipped with the initial topology described as above. Via the theory of extension of valuations and the fact that $Y$ is a ramified cover of $\Bbb{P}^1(\Bbb C)$,s o $\mathcal{M}(X)$ is a finite extension of $\Bbb{C}(X)$, I can show that the natural map $X \to Y$ is a bijection. It's also continuous by the universal property of the initial topology
can projective space be open subscheme of affine?
No. It has no regular functions on it.
Every regular function on CP^n is constant.
i'm talking about schemes
11:02
I think that shouldn't be a problem.
There are lots of global sections of an open subscheme of an affine space. But for CP^n it's only the constants
An isomorphism of schemes will give an isomorphism on the space of global sections, no
so basically all that is left to show is that $Y$ is Hausdorff. Firstly, Riemann-Roch implies that $\mathcal{M}(X)$ separates points as follows: let $x \in X$ and consider the divisor $D=(g+1) \cdot x$, then by Riemann-Roch $L(D) \geq \mathrm{deg}(D)+1-g=2$, so there is a nonconstant function $f \in L(D)$. This function has a pole and the only poles which are allowed are at $x$, so $f$ has a pole at $x$ and hence at no other points, thus $\mathcal{M}(X)$ separates points
More precisely I think it's true that the category of quasiprojective varieties with regular maps between them and the category of quasiprojective varieties with morphism of schemes between them are equivalent categories (@Mathein?)
how should I think about birational equivalence?
@BalarkaSen yes
the embedding is fully faithful
11:05
@MatheinBoulomenos nice plug
now to see that $Y$ is Hausdorff, let $(x_i)_{i \in I}$ be a net that converges to two points $x$ and $y$, then by continuity we get that for any meromorphic function $f$, $f(x_i)$ converges to $f(x)$ and $f(y)$, but as $\mathbb{P}^1(\mathbb{C})$ is Hausdorff, we get that $f(x)=f(y)$, hence $x=y$ as $\mathcal{M}(X)$ separates points by the Riemann-Roch argument above
@LeakyNun A rational parametrization, that's all.
thus $Y$ is Hausdorff as every convergent net has a unique limit
so the map $X \to Y$ is a continuous bijection from a compact space to a Hausdorff space
Lol this argument sounds awesome
Using Riemann-Roch and nets at the same time lmao
@MatheinBoulomenos now put GAGA into the mix
11:08
LOL
@MatheinBoulomenos Cool argument!
11:26
@MatheinBoulomenos we ignore the irrelevant ideal because it corresponds to the non-point $[0:0:\cdots:0]$ in the projective space case?
I've never thought about it this way
this is cool
The correspondence between projective varieties and homogeneous radical ideals of the coordinate ring is nothing special actually; you just think of a projective variety as an affine variety, namely, the affine cone on it
The cone on zero is zero which never appears in CP^n so you just chug it out
11:57
@LeakyNun Do we have a bijection in the more general case where $m$ is odd and $(a, m) = 1$?
I want to say the number of solutions to $x^2 = a\pmod{m}$ correspond bijectively to the number of solutions to $x^2 = a \pmod {p_i^{\alpha_i}}$ which correspond bijectively to the number of solutions to $x^2 = a \pmod {p_i}$?
Because I don't have the Chinese Remainder Theorem, I'm not sure.
Hi chat
??
Hello
Can some one help me to solve this puzzle - puzzling.stackexchange.com/questions/86116/…
 
1 hour later…
13:25
hey chat, I have some notation (and underatanfing) algebraic problems
Let $R$ be a ring, $M$ a left $R$-module: what are the differences between End($M$) and $\text{End}_R(M)$?
I would usually read them as the same thing
I thought it was same restriction on the set of the endomorphism; I mean, with $\text{End}_R(M)$ is set the of endomorphism od $M$, regarded as a left $R$-module, so it is the set of all maps $M\rightarrow$ made by the action of $R\times M\rightarrow M$, but I'm a bit confused
@loch you serious? ahahhaah
yes
ok, thanks :)
anyway usually it's clear from the context
13:36
@loch what is a finitely generated $\mathcal O_X$-module?
@LeakyNun it's the sheafy version of finitely generated modules
a sheaf F over the structure sheaf such that F(U) is fg over O_X(U)
what's the definition?
so it's an O_X module, where on each open U, it is a f.g. O_X(U)-module
"over" means... well you can guess
13:37
ok so you say "each"
since stacks says that at any point there is a nbhd on which it is fg
the module structures should be coherent as well: for every pair (U, V) of open sets, the colimit diagram for F on U, V, U \cap V and O_X for U, V, U \cap V are coherent
so stacks says "exists"
coherent... is another concept :P
I speak English not SGA
hmm it's not clear ot me that theyre the same
so maybe im wrong?
@BalarkaSen I've never seen this on stacks
ok lemme dig up the stacks definition
13:40
In mathematics, a sheaf of O-modules or simply an O-module over a ringed space (X, O) is a sheaf F such that, for any open subset U of X, F(U) is an O(U)-module and the restriction maps F(U) →F(V) are compatible with the restriction maps O(U) →O(V): the restriction of fs is the restriction of f times that of s for any f in O(U) and s in F(U). The standard case is when X is a scheme and O its structure sheaf. If O is the constant sheaf Z _ {\displaystyle {\underline {\mathbf...
@BalarkaSen I also don't see the colimit thing there
This implies the colimit thing
I mean obviously right
And if you take U to be empty set in my colimit thing it should give this :p
do we have an intrinsic definition like we have for vector bundle?
i.e. an OX-module M is a sheaf with scalar multiplication OX x M -> M etc
Well. What does OX x M mean? What is the value category of this sheaf
is an abelian-group-valued sheaf the same thing as an abelian group object in the category of sheaves?
@BalarkaSen idk, set?
13:44
Lol
U-small sets
Meh you have to state all those module conditions locally in any case
I wouldn't do this
is the condition on wiki something like "restriction is linear"?
It is precisely that. The restriction maps preserve the module structures
intrinsic defn for what?
13:46
@BalarkaSen hey stacks is saying the intrinsic one! :P
so we start with abelian groups
@BalarkaSen I'm slightly confused about the "colimit" that you mentioned
I'm just saying there's a diagram F(U) -> F(U cap V) <- F(V) which glues to F(U cup V). This should be compatible with the diagram O(U) -> O(U cap V) <- O(V) which glues to O(U cup V)
3 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
is an abelian-group-valued sheaf the same thing as an abelian group object in the category of sheaves?
also this
@BalarkaSen oh so the coequalizer exact sequence?
In the sense that there's an action of the latter diagram on the former diagram (there's an action termwise which commutes with the maps)
when do we use F? M?
@LeakyNun I don't know fuqualizer shit
13:50
whenever $\{ U_i \to U \} \in \mathrm{Cov}(\mathcal C)$ we have an exact sequence $0 \to F(U) \to \prod F(U_i) \rightrightarrows \prod \prod F(U_i \times U_j)$
@loch is an abelian-group-valued sheaf the same thing as an abelian group object in the category of sheaves?
stacksproject says yes
should be easy to see once you write out the defn anyway
(but it's easier to stacks project)
006J
thanks
@loch I like how they included - and 0
unlike the usual introductory texts to group who hide them under an existential quantifier
@loch I couldn't find the corresponding statement for sheaves...
but I suppose an abelian presehaf is a sheaf iff the presheaf of sets is a sheaf
@LeakyNun looks true to me
13:59
yay intrinsic definitions
ringed-valued sheaf also?
Yo
To
Yo
$\uparrow$o
underlying set of pullback of commutative rings is indeed the pullback of the underlying sets
so your equalizer or whatever is ok
@LeakyNun yeah should be
@BalarkaSen yay
@loch is the definition you initially mentioned the one taught in 18.726?
14:04
for f.g. O_X modules?
i dont rmb lol
@loch I don't think Vakil ever uses finitely generated to describe O_X modules right
we talk about finite type right
but the GAGA notes for 18.726 used f.g.
yeah stack says coherent module is one of finite type and etc
and 18.726 says f.g. and etc
so I guess finite type = f.g.
in which case stack says "there exists"
i guess there exists is more natural anyway
@loch in that case can't some V have M(V) be not f.g.
but M(U) and M(W) are f.g. for some W subset V subset U
probably
but i dont know an example
14:37
@LeakyNun I think you misread stacks. $\mathcal{F}|_U$ is a sheaf on $U$, that's not the same as $\mathcal{F}(U)$
user131753
15:14
Hi @MatheinBoulomenos.
user131753
Hello @AlessandroCodenotti.
Hi @user170039
user131753
@MatheinBoulomenos When are you planning to post your blog post on adjoint functors online?
user131753
I was wondering whether the natural transformation as homotopies between morphisms of $\mathbf{Cat}$ can be generalized to arbitrary categories and this has led me to ask the following question: Is it possible to define a notion analogous to the notion of homotopy of continuous functions for any two morphisms of a category $\mathbf{C}$? I had some discussion regarding that here. Probably you may find it interesting.
15:33
1
Q: Finite generation of sections of a coherent sheaf

A.GLet $X$ be a quasi-projective scheme over a noetherian ring, $\mathcal F$ a coherent sheaf of $\mathcal O_X$-modules, and $U$ an arbitrary open subset of $X$. Is $\Gamma(U,\mathcal F)$ a $\Gamma(U,\mathcal O_X)$-module of finite type?

@MatheinBoulomenos what does it mean then
@user170039 I'm a bit busy writing my bachelor thesis atm
For $V\subseteq U$, $F|_U(V)=F(V)$
but what does it mean to be finitely generated
@LeakyNun if you read the proof of the lemma after the defn you'll see that they meant there exists a surjection of OXmodules O_X^n -> F
15:41
i.e. surjective at all stalks?
yes
great
but of course in the defn of finitely generated -- you want this surjection to exist locally

if it exists globally then your sheaf is 'globally generated'
note that a map O_X -> F is determined by the image of 1 under O_X(X) -> F(X)
trying to work on my CV/resume right now
it's like pulling teeth lol
16:29
Hi friends.
Hey @anakhro
years later and I still can't answer this
5
Q: $L^2\cap C^\infty$ Hodge/Helmholtz decomposition on $\Bbb R^n$

Ryan UngerIn Majda and Bertozzi, Vorticity and Incompressible Flow on page 32, the orthogonal decomposition of a vector field $v\in L^2(\Bbb R^n)\cap C^\infty(\Bbb R^n)$ is proved, namely $$v=w+\nabla q, \quad w\bot_{L^2} \nabla q,$$ with both $w$ and $\nabla q$ in $L^2\cap C^\infty$. The proof is stated ...

feels bad
How are you doing, @BalarkaSen?
I swear they need to add something like $\nabla v\in L^2$ as a hypothesis or something
@anakhro Not bad. Thinking about things
16:33
or at least, you need more sophisticated ideas to prove than they indicate
@BalarkaSen I am not sure if you still wanted to/had time, but I can try taking a look at that Gromov thing or whatever with you
@anakhro I do still want to, but pressed with other things at the moment, unfortunately. I'll be completely free after 24th when semester starts, but we can start before that a little bit. I'll let you know when I have time.
You done with thesis?
Sure! If I don't appear on here for a bit, ping me on discord. And yeah I am done my thesis.
I just need to defend sometime in August.
Excellent, send it to me
On discord if you want. I currently don't have it open but I'll check soon.
16:38
I am a little embarrassed about it. I want to see how the defense goes and then I will send you the finished copy in September after I make edits after the defense.
For sure. I think it'd be good for me to read it as we dive into symplectic/contact h-principles because I don't know anything about symplectic/contact topology.
@BalarkaSen are you ready for the rush on area 51
all the kids are getting ready to storm area 51
to find the alien gfs
What
I'm out of the meme loop it seems
17:09
@BalarkaSen ok
so let $B^2_\rho$ denote the disk of radius $\rho$ in $\Bbb R^2$
let $0<r<R$
then $\partial(B_R^2\times B_r^2)=(S^1_R\times B_r^2)\cup (B_R^2\times S_r^1)$ and they intersect along $S^1_R\times S_r^1$, right?
Yes. What an unnecessarily clunky notation to say something simple.
how is this clunky
it seems like a very complicated thing to me
this seems to describe a canonical way to do a Dehn surgery on a hypersurface in $\Bbb R^4$
user131753
@MatheinBoulomenos What is the topic of your bachelor's thesis?
@MatheinBoulomenos What is the topic of your bachelor's thesis? (I'd like to know as well)
@RyanUnger OK. One guy has a thin boundary torus, and other guy has a fat boundary torus. What's the big issue
17:17
whatever, sorry for bothering you
this observation makes what I want possible
It's ok, thought you had deep metric shit happening
@BalarkaSen no, my whole question was even if I get control over the singular region, I don't know how to actually do the surgery. this gives me a hint
actually picturing it is hard though
it would be interesting to construct an example of an S^3 where the flow develops a singularity like this and you get an S^1 x S^2
this seems doable
17:37
@RyanUnger So the singularity is achieved at an S^1 x S^1, and you have to cut along that? Didn't you tell me a week ago that Hamilton-Ivey proved that the singularity is achieved at a submanifold of positive sectional curvature?
I don't know anything, just trying to understand
boring question: Suppose I start with a point [x,y,z] and want to replace it with [1,x,y,z]
the intent is that I'm going from affine to projective space. Is there a name for that operation? I thought there was but I'm blanking
That's a standard embedding $\Bbb A^3\to\Bbb P^3$, I don't know if it has a special name though
It's one of the "affine charts of $\Bbb P^3$"
@BalarkaSen not talking about Ricci flow
the singularity is along an $S^1_1\times B^2_{1/\epsilon}$ for mean curvature flow
oh ok
spooky
17:48
well, it probably is
I don't quite know how to prove that yet
but I need to work on toy models first
$\epsilon<10^{-3}$
@BalarkaSen well you want epsilon really small compared to 1
so you have a lot of room in the "flat direction"
18:31
@loch in your link, how is $i_\ast \mathcal O_L$ a $\Bbb P^2$-module?
I don't see how scalar multiplication is defined...
If you have a morphism of ringed spaces f:(X, O_X) -> (Y,O_Y) and F an O_X module, then f_*F has a natural O_Y module structure
19:17
QUESTION (on notation): $\phi: X \times \Bbb R \to X$
this supposedly defines a "flow" on the set $X$
and the flow is a group action of the additive group of real numbers on $X$
and the mapping I gave defines a flow (with some other conditions)
what does $X \times \Bbb R$ mean
oh
it's the cartesian product against the reals
How would I define this flow?
So I know the manifold is $S^2$
the integral curves are several longitudinal geodesics on $S^2$ originating from a point source, $p.$
evenly spaced
19:41
@Ultradark So like are these integral curves looping back to $p$. If yes then I guess you can think of it as the action of S^1 maybe in a given direction?
19:51
okay
@Albas what do you mean by the "action of $S^1$"
do you mean the paths of least action
20:06
As in group action of S^1 generating those flows.
20:40
oh
you said $S^1$??!
@Albas: But there's a sink at $-p=q$.
Ted, I think he was considering the flow looped around
That can't happen.
Euler characteristic forbids it.
@TedShifrin hi
Unless you have an index 2 singularity at $p$, which you don't. You have a source.
hi @Leaky
20:46
leaky!
is the source Hatcher?
source is $p$
@Ultra: Figure out how to do a single circle (parametrized by $\phi$). Then it will be the same in spherical coordinates for all values of $\theta$.
There's a source at $p$ and a sink at $-p$.
This is the usual Morse theory on the sphere.
yay Morse theory
20:48
Hi, demonic @Alessandro. I'm taking a break from packing ... which I so love to do.
Hmm didn't know this. Interesting@TedShifrin
I thought it was $\vec F(\theta,\phi)={1,\phi}$ but I'm stuck now
I have no idea what those coordinates mean on the right.
@TedShifrin I'm self-learning classical algebraic geometry
You want something that goes from $0$ length at $\phi = 0$ to length $1$, say, at $\phi=\pi/2$, and then back to $0$ length at $\phi=\pi$.
That could mean so many things, Leaky. Are you reading the Italians from the 19th century? :)
20:51
oh I'm
thinking sine?!
OK, @Ultra. And it's in the $\phi$ direction, i.e., tangent to the circle $\theta=\text{constant}$.
@TedShifrin a quasi-projective variety is the intersection of a Zariski-open and a Zariski-closed of $\Bbb P^n := (k^{n+1}-\{0\})/k^\ast$ where $k$ is an algebraically closed field
speaking about theta and phi parametrization:
LOL, so this is (late) 20th century "classical".
In probability theory, the Borel–Kolmogorov paradox (sometimes known as Borel's paradox) is a paradox relating to conditional probability with respect to an event of probability zero (also known as a null set). It is named after Émile Borel and Andrey Kolmogorov. == A great circle puzzle == Suppose that a random variable has a uniform distribution on a unit sphere. What is its conditional distribution on a great circle? Because of the symmetry of the sphere, one might expect that the distribution is uniform and independent of the choice of coordinates. However, two analyses give contradictory...
American mathematicians and (Europeans and American physicists) reverse $\phi$ and $\theta$. We don't need to argue about this.
Oh, there are always paradoxes on the circle.
20:53
what did the Italians do?
You know about the famous Bertrand paradox(es)?
@TedShifrin classical is everything before me personally
I've heard about one where some probability is 1/2 and 1/3 and 1/4
Lots of classic algebraic geometry. It's not an accident that most of the names on theorems are Italian.
I only know about Nullstellensatz which is German lol
20:54
LOL, @Eric. You're almost as egocentric as our deluded dictator.
I do know that $\mathcal O$ is Italian
Severi, Pieri, Castelnuovo, ....
oh, the names on theorems, not the names of theorems, lol
Bertini
im pretty sure he’s actually a solopsist
20:55
This vector field that @Ultradark mentions with this emanating from a point and sinking at another seems a lot like magnetic fields caused by a dipole. Wonder if they could be interesting as a mathematical aspect of electrodynamics.
So I just wished Danu a happy birthday, and he said he's at PCMI too, @Eric.
@Albas: I'm sure this is nothing new.
You can find him and talk complex geometry @Eric.
there's an italian geometer in imperial @TedShifrin
I didn't list modern names like Arbarello, Cornalba, ....
20:58
Yo yo yo, A ringed space locally isomorphic to a ringed space of the form Spec(A)- the set of all prime ideals of a commutative ring A- should be considered as a generalization of an algebraic variety
@TedShifrin word
and now it's known as a scheme
@Ultra: There's no need to duplicate Wiki in here, please.
@Eric: What's the best lecture/course you've been to?
05:00 - 21:0021:00 - 00:00

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