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00:02
Ye
00:25
Sorry. DFA = deterministic finite automaton
It's more on-topic to CS.SE anyways. Sorry for the noise and confusion.
Yup, I personally am clueless.
 
5 hours later…
05:01
@TedShifrin Thanks a lot for that. Quite a few books say that you should "row reduce it". Whereas they should actually talk about diagonalization of the matrix. And the job is easier for symmetric matrices.
 
3 hours later…
07:49
Mornin' all
07:59
Morning @ÍgjøgnumMeg
What's up :)
Just studying for exams
Fun
What courses do you have exams for this semester?
Models of set theory I, noncommutative geometry and type theory
On Monday, Tuesday and Wednesday next week, in this order
Cool, have fun
hahaha
you feeling prepared?
08:04
Ehhh... Kinda hahaha
lol, I'm sure you'll be fine
I don't feel too good about noncommutative geometry, we did a bunch of Riemannian geometry stuff I'm very unfamiliar with
@AlessandroCodenotti they don't exist
models of set theory
08:09
Yeah, well, you know, that's just, like, your opinion, man.
cit.
08:21
lol
I'm just trying to remember how to do mathematics
With tears and pain
indeed
Just haven't done any calculus in so long
lol
 
2 hours later…
10:04
Are complex numbers ordered pairs with aditional properties or something we can represent with ordered pairs ?
10:23
@Kenkar sure, you have ordered pairs of real numbers with a specific addition and multiplication attached to them
 
1 hour later…
11:27
Claim: The zero ordinal is a limit ordinal
Proof: Let $[]$ be the empty sequence
Then its subsequence is itself, which is also a subset of itself
We can pick elements out of $[]$ by iterating the operation on its subsequences
all these elements are inside empty sets which has no elements
Therefore, we can take the supremum of this constant sequence, and get $0$
Alternately, take a bipartition on [], which gives [],[]. Rinse and repeat on every subset that is generated. Then use the axiom of countable choice to produce a sequence {[],[],[],[],...}. The supremum of this is clearly [] which is 0
12:03
These three expressions are equivalent, right? By the way, the context is asymptotic notation.

f(n) is Θ(g(n))

f(n)=Θ(g(n))

f(n) ∈ Θ(g(n))
13:01
yes
the first two are abuse of notation
Why do you think the two first are abuse of notation?
ok the first one can count as ambiguous
the second one is clear: the left hand side is a function and the right hand side is a set of functions
so clearly they mean the third one
In mathematics, abuse of notation occurs when an author uses a mathematical notation in a way that is not formally correct but that seems likely to simplify the exposition or suggest the correct intuition (while being unlikely to introduce errors or cause confusion). However, the concept of formal correctness depends on time and on the context. Therefore, many notations in mathematics are qualified as abuse of notation in some context and are formally correct in other contexts; as many notations were introduced a long time before any formalization of the theory in which they are used, the q...
 
2 hours later…
15:01
In the context of asymptotic notation, are there infinitely many functions $f(n)$ that is a superset of $\Theta( g(n) )$.

In other words, are there infinitely many functions $f(n)$ that satisfy the following:
$$f(n)=\Theta( g(n) )$$
.

In other other words, is it possible to come up with infinitely many functions $f(n)$ that, from some $x_0$ value and beyond on the x-axis, stays in the white area (between $c_1*g(x)$ and $c_2*g(x)$:
* I just realized I set "superset", I meant "member of"
15:50
Note that you are asking two different questions. The constants $c_1,c_2$ in the definition of $\Theta(g(n))$ can be chosen dependent on $f$, so the second question is more restrictive. However, the answer to both is "yes", granted $c_1\neq c_2$ and $g\neq0$ (hopefully I'm not missing another degenerate case).
16:49
@MatheinBoulomenos I summon thee
17:55
The chat is not very active lately
18:41
Hello
Hey
Hey
19:26
Howdy
20:00
This exercise asks to prove that $f(x) = \sum_{n=1}^\infty 2^{-n} \cos(10^n \pi x)$ is nowhere differentiable. The hint is to prove that
$\displaystyle \left \vert {f\left({\frac{j+1}{10^k}}\right)- f\left({\frac{j}{10^k}}\right)}\right\vert \ge 2^{-k}$ for all integers $j, k$ with $k \ge 1$
how does that prove the non-differentiability at values that can't be written in the form $\dfrac{j}{10^k}$?
This is smaller than $|f({j+1\over 10^k})-f(x)|+|f(x)-f({j\over 10^k})|$
When ${j\over 10^k}\le x\le{j+1\over 10^k}$ this tells you something
20:16
hm
are we holding $k$ fixed here and looking at it as a sequence in $j$?
or the other way around?
20:38
@Alessandro Are you around?
I have a question. If $E$ is a vector bundle over $M$, then I can take the sheaf $\Gamma_E$ of sections of $E$ over $M$. This is a (projective) $C^\infty(M)$-module valued sheaf, and Serre-Swan theorem states that the global section functor is an equivalence of categories between $\text{Vect}_E$ and $C^\infty(M)-\text{PMod}$, right?
Finitely generated whatever
So how do I reconstruct the vector bundle given a finitely generated coherent projective $C^\infty(M)$-module valued sheaf on $M$?
Uh I think you want a compact $M$
OK
I want to explicitly understand what the functor in the other direction is, I guess. Given a f.g. projective $C^\infty$-module I can take the stalks at every point on $M$; projective local rings are free. This should be the "total space" of the vector bundle. But how do you get the topology back?
It's not the espace etale; that gives the stalks discrete topology! (Which is useful, but for a different correspondence, between locally constant sheaves and representations of $\pi_1 M$)
Also I'm not sure about $C^\infty(M)$. The statement of Serre-Swan I'm familiar with just asks for a compact Hausdorff $X$ and gets an equivalence between finitely generated projective $C(X)$ modules and vector bundles over $X$. This should be a minor difference
20:48
I am thinking smooth category. Tell me how to construct a vector bundle on $X$ from a f.g. projective $C(X)$-module
Ok so we are given a fpg $C(X)$-module $A$ and we want a bundle $E$ such that $\Gamma(E)\simeq A$
We can find a projection in $M_n(C(X))$ with $A\simeq p(C(X)^{\oplus m})$
$p\colon C(X)^{\oplus m}\to C(X)^{\oplus m}$ induces a bundle morphism $\tau\colon X\times\Bbb C^m\to X\times\Bbb C^m$
Hold on. $M_n(C(X))$ is the matrix ring over $C(X)$? What is $m$?
I don't follow
$m$ is some integer
How is $C(X)^{\oplus m}$ embedded in $M_n(C(X))$?
Oh ok, wait, I was skipping a lot of steps
20:54
@GFauxPas we're looking at $j\over 10^k$ approximating $x$
A module $A$ over $R$ is finitely generated projective iff there is some $n$ and some $p=p^2\in M_n(R)$ with $A\simeq p(M_n(R))$
The general statement is that $A$ is projective over $R$ iff there is a free module $F$ and $p=p^2\in\mathrm{End}_R(F)$ with $A\simeq p(F)$
@Alessandro Yes, because $A \oplus B = R^n$ for some $B$ and $n$. There is a map $p : R^n \to R^n$ which projects to $A$. Got it.
Why is the second summand free?
20:58
Whoops
ah, I see. thanks Astyx
$0\to B\to R^n\to A\to 0$ is split exact, and $p$ is the map $R^n\to A\to R^n$, where the second map is the splitting
Just $R^n =A \oplus B \to A \oplus 0 \subset R^n$, no? :P
now I just have to figure out how to analyze $\cos(10^{n-k} \pi n)$ for when $k > n$
Fair enough :P
21:00
I don't understand your notation. $A \simeq p(M_n(R))$??
Ok so we have the map $p\colon C(X)^m\to C(X)^m$ now
when $k \le n$ it's $1$ or $-1$
@BalarkaSen A is isomorphic to the image of the matrix ring through $p$
Of course I wanted $p(R^n)$ instead
woops
sorry
When the free module is finitely generated we can identify $\mathrm{End}_R(R^n)$ and $M_n(R)$
Is this clear now?
Yep, got it.
Now you'll realize $p$ as a bundle map $X \times \Bbb R^n \to X \times \Bbb R^n$ and $E$ will be image of this bundle map, I suppose.
Ok so we have a map $p\colon C(X)^m\to C(X)^m$, by taking $\Gamma$ of everything we get a bundle morphism $\tau\colon X\times \Bbb C^m\to X\times \Bbb C^m$
@BalarkaSen Exactly
21:06
Nice, that's exactly what I wanted. What a beautiful way to recover the topology.
I know $\vert \cos x - \cos y \vert \le \vert x - y \vert$ but I'm not sure that will help
since I want a lower bound not an upper bound
(Do you see a simple reason why the image of $\tau$ is a subbundle of $X\times \Bbb C^m$? Because I don't and I don't really follow the argument we did in class either)
I'd try to prove that the kernel of $\tau$ corresponds to $B$, the factor the projection $p$ kills.
I'll have to think carefully about it
Once we prove that $E$ is a quotient bundle of $X \times \Bbb R^n$, basically
It's 2:40 AM so I will sleep now, but I will ponder on this and tell you what my thoughts are tomorrow @Alessandro. Thanks a ton!
No problem
The professor argued that $x\mapsto\mathrm{rank}(\tau_x)$ is continuous (hence locally constant), which is a condition strong enough to guarantee that $\ker\tau$ is a subbundle of the first one
Right, so you need to argue $\tau$ is a bundle morphism in the first place.
21:14
Well $\tau=\Gamma(p)$, so if we know that $\Gamma$ is a functor we're fine
I'd say $p = \Gamma(\tau)$ rather, the global section functor applied to the bundle morphism. You're trying to prove the inverse guy is a functor
That's not clear apriori to me
Oh yeah sorry I got it backward
I should go to sleep too lol
I might need to see your professor's argument, I like the rank idea a lot. In my case it won't be continuous, because my bundles are stratified :3
It will be continuous on each strata
But yeah let's hit the sack for today lmao
Ok but if know that $\Gamma$ is full (and it is) we can find some $\tau$ with $\Gamma(\tau)=p$
I see, OK
I'll try to understand it better tomorrow. Thanks again!
21:18
Ah that's actually easy to see after proving that $\Gamma$ commutes with tensor products and duals
By writing $\mathrm{Hom}(E,F)$ for two bundles $E,F$ as the bundle $E^\ast\otimes F$
Sure, I'll be happy to talk more about this tomorrow
(It's among the stuff I need to know for an exam next Tuesday lol)
Hah great we can talk it out then
G'night!
Good night!
(one last remark, the other direction of the implication $A$ projective iff there is $p=p^2\in\mathrm{End}_R(F)$ for a free $F$. Suppose you're given such a $p$, then $F\simeq A\oplus (I-p)(F)$, so $A$ is a direct summand of a free module)
21:42
I don't know much about K-theory and stumbled upon the expression "the K-theory class of p in K_0(B) does not come from K_0(A)" for C*-algebras A,B, what does that mean? There is a canonical inclusion homomorphism phi:A->B. Could this mean that p is not in the image of the induced morphism K_0(phi):K_0(A)->K_0(B)?
Yes that's how I would read it
Great thanks!
You have a pushforward map $\varphi_\ast$ induced by $\varphi:A\to B$ that sends finitely generated projective modules over $A$ to fgp modules over $B$. The induced map on K-theory is then $[E]\mapsto[\varphi_\ast E]$ for an fgp $A$-module $E$. Saying that $p$ does not come from the K-theory of $A$ is just saying that its class not in the image of this map
Followup: The paper says that $K_0(C_0(N x G) \rtimes_r G) = \oplus_{n\in N} Z$ for a countable discrete group G. I know that $K_0(C_0(G)\rtimes_r G)=K_0(CompactOperators(\ell^2(G)))=Z$. Is there an easy way to see this first equation?
@AlessandroCodenotti since when are you a K theorist
21:54
@Kalua Now that's way beyond what I can help with, sorry
Np, you still helped me there
@RyanUnger I only know a little tiny bit about K-theory for C*-algebras, it was part of the noncommutative geometry course
By the way @Ryan do you know how analysts construct tensor products of vector spaces?
@AlessandroCodenotti Why would analysts define them any differently, is that a trick question? :D
It's easy, you take $V\times W$, equip it with the discrete topology and then look at $C_c(V\times W)$, the vector space of compactly supported functions, so that $\{\chi_{(v,w)}\mid v\in V, w\in W\}$ is a generating set, and then you quotient by the subspace generated by $\chi_{(v_1+v_2,w)}-\chi_{(v_1,w)}-\chi_{(v_2,w)}$ and the other tensor relations
22:16
Hmmm, that started really ugly with the $C_c(V\times W)$ and I was determined to dislike this approach, but there may be some beaty in it the more I think about it... But I don't see the appeal, universal property or span{v cross w | v,w in chosen bases of V,W} seem more elegant
I know, it was a joke
(but I actually found that definition in a book)
I hope I will never have to practically use this xD
22:31
Oh boy
@AlessandroCodenotti your “analyst” is some twisted mutant algebraist

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