@TedShifrin Thanks a lot for that. Quite a few books say that you should "row reduce it". Whereas they should actually talk about diagonalization of the matrix. And the job is easier for symmetric matrices.
Then its subsequence is itself, which is also a subset of itself
We can pick elements out of $[]$ by iterating the operation on its subsequences
all these elements are inside empty sets which has no elements
Therefore, we can take the supremum of this constant sequence, and get $0$
Alternately, take a bipartition on [], which gives [],[]. Rinse and repeat on every subset that is generated. Then use the axiom of countable choice to produce a sequence {[],[],[],[],...}. The supremum of this is clearly [] which is 0
In mathematics, abuse of notation occurs when an author uses a mathematical notation in a way that is not formally correct but that seems likely to simplify the exposition or suggest the correct intuition (while being unlikely to introduce errors or cause confusion). However, the concept of formal correctness depends on time and on the context. Therefore, many notations in mathematics are qualified as abuse of notation in some context and are formally correct in other contexts; as many notations were introduced a long time before any formalization of the theory in which they are used, the q...
In the context of asymptotic notation, are there infinitely many functions $f(n)$ that is a superset of $\Theta( g(n) )$.
In other words, are there infinitely many functions $f(n)$ that satisfy the following: $$f(n)=\Theta( g(n) )$$
.
In other other words, is it possible to come up with infinitely many functions $f(n)$ that, from some $x_0$ value and beyond on the x-axis, stays in the white area (between $c_1*g(x)$ and $c_2*g(x)$:
* I just realized I set "superset", I meant "member of"
Note that you are asking two different questions. The constants $c_1,c_2$ in the definition of $\Theta(g(n))$ can be chosen dependent on $f$, so the second question is more restrictive. However, the answer to both is "yes", granted $c_1\neq c_2$ and $g\neq0$ (hopefully I'm not missing another degenerate case).
I have a question. If $E$ is a vector bundle over $M$, then I can take the sheaf $\Gamma_E$ of sections of $E$ over $M$. This is a (projective) $C^\infty(M)$-module valued sheaf, and Serre-Swan theorem states that the global section functor is an equivalence of categories between $\text{Vect}_E$ and $C^\infty(M)-\text{PMod}$, right?
Finitely generated whatever
So how do I reconstruct the vector bundle given a finitely generated coherent projective $C^\infty(M)$-module valued sheaf on $M$?
I want to explicitly understand what the functor in the other direction is, I guess. Given a f.g. projective $C^\infty$-module I can take the stalks at every point on $M$; projective local rings are free. This should be the "total space" of the vector bundle. But how do you get the topology back?
It's not the espace etale; that gives the stalks discrete topology! (Which is useful, but for a different correspondence, between locally constant sheaves and representations of $\pi_1 M$)
Also I'm not sure about $C^\infty(M)$. The statement of Serre-Swan I'm familiar with just asks for a compact Hausdorff $X$ and gets an equivalence between finitely generated projective $C(X)$ modules and vector bundles over $X$. This should be a minor difference
Ok so we have a map $p\colon C(X)^m\to C(X)^m$, by taking $\Gamma$ of everything we get a bundle morphism $\tau\colon X\times \Bbb C^m\to X\times \Bbb C^m$
(Do you see a simple reason why the image of $\tau$ is a subbundle of $X\times \Bbb C^m$? Because I don't and I don't really follow the argument we did in class either)
The professor argued that $x\mapsto\mathrm{rank}(\tau_x)$ is continuous (hence locally constant), which is a condition strong enough to guarantee that $\ker\tau$ is a subbundle of the first one
(one last remark, the other direction of the implication $A$ projective iff there is $p=p^2\in\mathrm{End}_R(F)$ for a free $F$. Suppose you're given such a $p$, then $F\simeq A\oplus (I-p)(F)$, so $A$ is a direct summand of a free module)
I don't know much about K-theory and stumbled upon the expression "the K-theory class of p in K_0(B) does not come from K_0(A)" for C*-algebras A,B, what does that mean? There is a canonical inclusion homomorphism phi:A->B. Could this mean that p is not in the image of the induced morphism K_0(phi):K_0(A)->K_0(B)?
You have a pushforward map $\varphi_\ast$ induced by $\varphi:A\to B$ that sends finitely generated projective modules over $A$ to fgp modules over $B$. The induced map on K-theory is then $[E]\mapsto[\varphi_\ast E]$ for an fgp $A$-module $E$. Saying that $p$ does not come from the K-theory of $A$ is just saying that its class not in the image of this map
Followup: The paper says that $K_0(C_0(N x G) \rtimes_r G) = \oplus_{n\in N} Z$ for a countable discrete group G. I know that $K_0(C_0(G)\rtimes_r G)=K_0(CompactOperators(\ell^2(G)))=Z$. Is there an easy way to see this first equation?
It's easy, you take $V\times W$, equip it with the discrete topology and then look at $C_c(V\times W)$, the vector space of compactly supported functions, so that $\{\chi_{(v,w)}\mid v\in V, w\in W\}$ is a generating set, and then you quotient by the subspace generated by $\chi_{(v_1+v_2,w)}-\chi_{(v_1,w)}-\chi_{(v_2,w)}$ and the other tensor relations
Hmmm, that started really ugly with the $C_c(V\times W)$ and I was determined to dislike this approach, but there may be some beaty in it the more I think about it... But I don't see the appeal, universal property or span{v cross w | v,w in chosen bases of V,W} seem more elegant