@Gigili thanks for the info. i'm more interested in puzzle solving than rep points though. the only thing that would annoy me is that low rep users can edit
So, a left exact functor is one that maps a short exact sequence $0 \to \dots \to 0$ to a short left exact sequence $0 \to \dots$. Now I'm a bit confused. In AM on page 22 we prove that the $Hom$ functors map short right exact sequences to short left exact sequences and short left exact sequences to short left exact sequences respectively. So we don't prove that the $Hom$ functors are (left/right) exact. But they are, aren't they?
"Added: As witnessed by the argument above, left exactness of Hom is essentially the definition of left exactness in the abelian category of R-modules."
I think I don't understand what he's saying there.
@Gigili i heard the opera "die zauberflöte" and i've like german ever since. i've had no time to learn it though as i'm constantly working on mathematics.
which in arithemetic geometry goes the way of french
@anon no, you've shown that if there is a prime that divides $ab$ and $a+b$ it must be 1. I think the problem arises in showing that the only unit is 1.
It's a picky point, but when dealing with elementary facts I worry a bit :-)
Most of the answers to this question use either the derivative of $\exp(x)$ or the derivative of $\log(x)$. It seems to me that if you know either of those, substitution and L'Hopital bypasses the point (which I think is finding the derivative of $\exp(x)$).