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00:08
Hi chat.
I was thinking: in FOL we can instantiate the unique object that satisfies a property by defining a new constant that satisfies and using that “satisfies property $\implies$ equals to constant”. What about usual notation (can be thought of notation for the element of a singleton)? If $f$ is a function and $c$ a variable within its range, how do we define $f(c)$? Actually, how do we formally define $f(c)$ in FOL?
@Rick what’s unclear about the definition? A graph is bipartite if you can split the vertices in two groups such that there’s no edges between vertices in the same group
@LucasHenrique in FOL we just say here are a bunch of function symbols, constant symbols, and relation symbols
@Fargle this is a good place to jot ideas: stackedit.io/app#
2
00:25
Looks cool
Maybe I can migrate all my ramblings there
hmm... does it support mobile?
@Secret not sure - never tried.
00:56
Could someone help me with a triple integral? Cylindrical coordinates
@CaptainAmerica16 I used Ethan D. Bloch's analysis text. It was amazing. I didn't even know he had abstract algebra text.
01:12
Gaussian 16 quote of the day:
> "MATHEMATICS IS THE ART OF GIVING THE SAME NAME
TO DIFFERENT THINGS."
- H. POINCARE
@Secret it=this site? If so then yes
> "mathematician's reputation rests on the number of bad proofs he has
given." - A.S. Besicovich
@Holo ah I mean stackedit
@Secret So no idea
In other news, I am currently reading an arxiv that is a set of notes on finite sets, and currently experimenting on defining something I called a "subfinite set"
In particular, the notes give a way to define finite sets without referencing to the natural numbers, and then proved that they are equivalent
@Secret I think "the power set of $A$ is D-finite"="$A$ is finite"
Or the power set of the power set? Something like this
01:26
That I don't remember, though I recall seeing a theorem that mentioned about taking power sets of D-finite sets twice and that is not necessary D-finite or something
(cont. on arxiv) Basically, given any set $E$, you can find some subset $\mathcal{S}\subset \mathcal{P}(E)$ such that $\mathcal{S}$ is an inductive-$E$ system. This is something which satisfies the following:
$\varnothing \in \mathcal{S}$
$B \cup \{a\} \in \mathcal{S}$ for all $B \in \mathcal{S}^p$ and for all $a \in E\setminus B$
where $\mathcal{S}^p$ is the set of subsets of $\mathcal{S}$ that are proper subsets of $E$
@Semiclassical is there a more visual yet correct way of stating that to a person who knows nothing about graphs . I need to be able to explain this to a retarded person. By retarded I mean someone who likes to make sense of things with their gut
If you run this procedure on any finite ordinal for example, you will notice that the definition of inductive-$E$ system enumerates the elements in the set in some systematic fashion that does not need to take account of order
Yes, "the powerset of the powerset of A is Dedekind-finite"="A is finite"
Just checked
The author than defines $E$ as finite iff $\mathcal{P}(E)$ is the only inductive-$E$ system
I see
I never heard about this definition
Wait, $\cal S$ is in ${\cal P(P(}E))$, so how subset of $\cal S$ be a subset of $E$?
01:51
Let's take an example: e.g. E={0,1,2}
Using the definition of inductive E systems, we have:
$\mathcal{P}(E) =$ {0,{0},{1},{2},{0,1},{0,2},{1,2},{0,1,2}}
Let's say $\mathcal{S}$ = {0,{0},{0,1},{0,1,2}} then $S^p \in \mathcal{P}(S) = \mathcal{PP}(E)$ will be {0,{{0}},{0,{0}},{{0},{0,1}}, too messy to write down}
Observe that the element {0,{0}}={0,1} in $S^p$ is a proper subset of $E$
Thus I think the author's definition of $S^p$ allows us to keep track on which stage of induction we are in
So we start with the definition of ordinals?
With ordinals we can define the natural numbers tho...
No I just use ordinals as an example. The author in that arxiv linked above actually does it abstractly for any set (because I am terrible with nesting notations), which is why in the past 2 weeks I have trouble understanding it
He will eventually proved that this is equivalent to the finite ordinals
Something in this definition seems wrong:
$\mathcal{S}\subset \mathcal{P}(E)$, $\mathcal{S}$ is an inductive-$E$ system. This is something which satisfies the following:
$\varnothing \in \mathcal{S}$
$B \cup \{a\} \in \mathcal{S}$ for all $B \in \mathcal{S}^p$ and for all $a \in E\setminus B$
where $\mathcal{S}^p$ is the set of subsets of $\mathcal{S}$ that are proper subsets of $E$
> The power set of a set E, i.e., the set of all its subsets, will be denoted by P(E) and the set of non-empty subsets by P0(E). If E is a set and S is a subset of P(E) then Sp will be used to denote the set of subsets in S which are proper subsets of E.
Finite sets will be defined here in terms of what is known as an inductive system, where a subset S of P(E) is called an inductive E-system if ∅ ∈ S and F ∪{e} ∈ S for all F ∈ Sp, e ∈ E \ F. In particular, P(E) is itself an inductive E-system.
"the set of subsets in S which are proper subsets of E", not of
02:00
How can i find an example of a group G where Z(G) and [G,G] don't have any containment relation , i.e neither Z(G) <= [G,G] , or [G,G] <= Z(G)
Okay, now it makes sense
So $\mathcal{S}^p \subset \mathcal{PP}(E)$
Where [G,G] is the commutator subgroup and Z(G) is the center of G
No, it still does not make sense. $S^p\in PP(E)$ means that $x\in S^p\implies x\subseteq P(E)$, not $x\subseteq E$...
hmm... In that case I don't really understood what "then Sp will be used to denote the set of subsets in S which are proper subsets of E"
Trying to comprehend that statement alone took me 2 weeks
02:07
I think that it should be $S\in P(E)$, not $S\subset P(E)$, otherwise I don't understand it either
Resend the link I will read the whole part, not only the definition. Maybe this will help
It's very early in the page in the introduction
page 3 to be exact
Okay, after reading a bit about Kuratowski-finiteness I think that he mean:
The set $P(E)$ is inductive E-system if for all $A\subseteq P(E)$ we have ($\emptyset\in A$ and $X\in A\implies X\cup\{x\}\in A$ for $x\in E$) impies $E\in A$
@Secret
But I got this from the reference, not from the paper
02:31
hmm... seems like the usual induction but applied to all the subsets of $E$
@Secret Yes, it is saying: induction on any subset of E will eventually reach $E$ itself
ok that is a lot easier to work with
(than that nested mess of $S^p$ in that paper)
02:46
Yea, I don't get what the paper :/
 
2 hours later…
05:01
@Daminark wooow that's beauty ❤️
@Symposium How was his book on analysis? I might look into it after I finish my current one - assuming it's written at a higher level.
 
3 hours later…
08:09
0
Q: With $\alpha>0$, how to calculate the volume of $E_\alpha=\{(x,y,z)\in\Bbb R^3: x^2+y^2-\alpha^2\le\alpha z\le\alpha(3\alpha-2x)\}$

LearnerWith $\alpha>0$ let $E_\alpha=\left\{(x,y,z)\in\Bbb R^3:\frac1\alpha(x^2+y^2-\alpha^2)\le z\le 3\alpha-2x \right\}.$ I'm asked to find the volume of this set, which is $V_\alpha=\iiint_{E_\alpha}dxdydz.$ Now, I think I should use the cylindrical coordinates $x=r\cos\theta, y=r\sin\theta, z=z$. ...

Any help?
08:21
@LucasHenrique We don't, a function is already defined (in the metatheory)
09:11
@AlessandroCodenotti I looked at the answer
I'm like "wow this is dank"
09:25
Hey if anyone is interested I found a good paper on Gaussian binomial coefficients. Q-BINOMIALS AND THE GREATEST COMMON DIVISOR, Keith R. Slavin,INTEGERS:ELECTRONIC JOURNAL OF COMBINATORIAL NUMBER THEORY Volume 8 (2008).
It primary is to do with the greatest common divisor function oc, but Gaussian Binomial Coefficients count the number of subspaces in a $n$ dimensional vector space I think, so yeah it should have to do with all the bizarre objects and large wordy math that seems popular
09:52
Can someone help how to solve $\frac{d^2f}{dr^2} + \frac{2}{r} \frac{df}{dr}=0$
 
2 hours later…
11:52
@Holo ok using the definition in the reference, I think $\mathcal{S}^p$ is actually the set, whose elements are proper subset of E, and $\mathcal{S}^p \subseteq \mathcal{P}(E)$
Then the two definitions are equivalent
 
1 hour later…
12:59
@Secret make sense, but, the way it is written is so confusing
@Nobodyrecognizeable multiply by $r^2$ and use this method
13:19
Yeah, he seems to like to use a lot of nesting in his definitions
In other news, the longer I look at the statement "The empty set is a subset of any set" and how $\varnothing \in \mathcal{P}(\varnothing)$ and $\varnothing \subset \mathcal{P}(\varnothing)$ are both true, the more I have this thought that any set has uncountably many "empty string elements"
I mean e.g. the subsets of the singleton {a} depends on where you put some partition | through that set. If you do it like this: {|a}, then the left side is $\{\} = \varnothing$ and the right side is $\{a\}$
And you can imagine computing $\mathcal{PP}(\{a\})$ which basically does the following:
$\{|a\} = \{\varnothing, \{a\}\}$, and then:
$\{|\varnothing, \{a\}\} = \{\varnothing,\{\varnothing, \{a\}\}\}$
$\{\varnothing,| \{a\}\} = \{\{\varnothing\},\{\{a\}\}\}$
thus we have in total: $\{\varnothing,\{\varnothing, \{a\}\},\{\varnothing\},\{\{a\}\}\}$
So in theory:
$\{|||...||a\} = \{|a\} = \{a\}$
@Secret I would say that this is extremely bad way to look at this(as it helps only for singletons) and would say that there aren't uncountably many, there are a proper class many
yeah, it is really weird to have a humongous amount of nothingness in something
13:35
@Holo thanks for the help.
@Nobodyrecognizeable No problems
13:48
hi
anyone care to discuss persistant homologies
14:07
@LeakyNun Where? Which proof did you see?
14:47
[Random]
A cosmology of ZFC:
In the beginning, there is nothing $\varnothing$ and God (Proper classes)
From nothing, comes something $\{\varnothing\}$ and from something comes more things 2,3,4,5,...
Then God commanded: Let there be the axiom of infinity, and then the cosmology populated by nothing, something and God splits to accomodate a new entity, the countable $\Bbb{N}$
Then God diced $\Bbb{N}$ into many pieces. The first uncountable came into existence
And as his final task before going to rest, he commanded: Let there be the axiom of choice. And the infinite cosmos is brought into well order. The creation of ZFC is completed
You are missing some axioms tho
that's true, hmm...
Trouble is, the axiom of empty set means that in the beginning there isn't really nothing, which is very strange to conceptualise
I guess we can probably get away with in the beginning, there is only God (because ZFC make no explicit reference to proper classes)
In ZF(and ZFC) there are no proper classes
There are sets and that it
If something is not a set then ZF(C) does not see it
Trying to conceptualise a state of being before there is even nothingness is going to be challenging...
Let me think about how to rewrite this when I check my latest batch of chemistry calculations...
15:14
hello
can any one here can help me understanding contour integral
and how it is different from regular integral?
@Secret hello
what is that?
$$\oint$$
^ this thing
For example if an object goes and comes back then: $$\oint F.dx = 0$$
How?
So a regular integral can be thought of as being over a "path" in the 1-dimensional real line. But those paths simply look like intervals, so you can speak of an integral "from a to b".
I didn't understood, I'm very very new to calculus
:P
@Fargle Can this be used for circle's eqs
?
I'm not sure what you mean by the question.
$$x^2 + y^2 = 36$$
@Fargle You mean that for a closed curve, it should be zero?
@AbhasKumarSinha It depends---in the real numbers, that's certainly true, because $\int_a^b f dx + \int_b^a f dx = 0$, and it's like we're integrating over a closed curve in 1 dimension, starting at $a$, going to $b$, and ending at $a$
15:26
@Fargle Can you give me an equation for example, I think that I can understand better with it
Does anybody here have a strong interest in statistical mechanics?
I have a specific question: mathoverflow.net/questions/317192/…
@AbhasKumarSinha That means integrating along some closed curve
It's an integral symbol that appears frequently in many domains of calculus as well in physics and engineering
@Secret can you give me example of such curve? plz
15:30
This is what a line integral looks like over a curve in a scalar field. You literally just do a regular integral, but by thinking of the curve as your interval.
can any mathematical eqs be used as an example?
like circle? it is also a closed curve?
Consider $z = x^2 + y^2$, and the curve $C: x^2 + y^2 = 1$.
okay
then how to take intervals?
how do you know what intervals are to be taken?
Parametrize the curve $C$ with the vector function $\vec{r}(t) = (\cos t, \sin t)$.
what is parametrize?
Is it necessary to convert every eqs into vectors? like ellipse too?
15:35
With no offense meant whatsoever, it's probably best that you wait to tackle this until you've seen parametric equations and multivariable calculus/vector calculus in a bit more completeness.
Is there something like multivariable calculus?
I know how to do things for single variable or convert the variable into a single dependent variable and integrate
Multivariable calc (along with parametric stuff, vector calc, and line/surface integrals even) can usually be found in standard calculus textbooks
Off the top of my head, the "complete" versions of Rogawski and Larson both feature several chapters on multi
which standard, I'm just in high school
I'll start the IA Maron's Calc in single variable next month
It looks like that book won't cover multivariable at all...hmm.
I'd personally recommend Rogawski's Calculus: Early Transcendentals as a book that covers basically everything you'll need, both single- and multivariable.
will that help in jee?
15:42
I'm not sure, I have no experience with the JEE
Let me repeat:
how do you do that?
i see
@Fargle how can I cover that 1200 page book? is that the correct one I've?
don't use offensive words.
So yeah, just wait until you get on uni and then multivariable calculus will become clear
@Secret i'll try to wait'
15:46
It is an interesting and important field as you will get to see in a few years
@AbhasKumarSinha Sounds like the right one. It will take a while. Most college students in the US take about a year and a half to go through the whole thing, over 3 courses
I of course can't speak to how things are done anywhere else.
@Fargle What can I be if I take maths and physics as a major?
dun worry I'll be stanford after next year
What do you mean? Like career-wise?
Those books are intended to be as clear as physically possible, so hopefully one doesn't struggle on a given page as much as one might on other books. But practice is important.
15:48
I dunno, mathematician, physicist, data analyst, teacher, uhh...
...barista...
That assumes we can predict what a career will look like in 10-20 years
@AbhasKumarSinha For JEE purposes, apostol volume 1 kind of does the job I think.
@MikeMiller oh, thanks for that advice :)
Albas would know about the JEE better than us
@Fargle Thanks for your time :)
15:49
No problem.
So everyone states that a closed immersion of schemes is obviously a morphism of finite type, but I'm not seeing why this holds so I think I'm missing something obvious. Any hint in the right direction?
Can you tell me what everything means very carefully
Just keep in mind I am slow
"what everything means very carefully"!!? You mean something where this phase can be used or what?
I was writing to Alessandro.
A morphism of schemes $f:X\to Y$ is a closed immersion if it is a homeomorphism onto a closed subspace of $Y$ on the topological spaces level and on the sheaves level the map $f^\#:O_Y\to f_\ast O_X$ is surjective
15:53
And surjective means stalkwise I guess
What does sharp mean? Pullback of functions?
You can say that surjective means that the sheafification of the image presheaf is the whole of $f_\ast O_X$ but surjective on stalks is usually the most convenient definition
He's I'm fine with that
Yes*
And finite type?
Also, I think this may be reduced to the affine case
Maybe not, the closed condition is worrying. If it can't be reduced to "locally closed"...
The sharp is part of the morphism. A morphism of schemes (ringed spaces really) is a pair $f,f^\#$ where $f$ is a map of the underlying topological spaces and $f^\#$ of the sheaves. The map of top. spaces itself is not enough to determine pullbacks of functions so they need to be specified as part of the morphism
16:00
Yeah this is too hard for me
I am not (ahem) immersed in this stuff
So finite type means that there is a cover of $Y$ by affine open subschemes $\operatorname{Spec} R_i$ such that, for every $i$, $f^{-1}(\operatorname{Spec} R_i)$ can be covered by finitely many affine open subschemes $\operatorname{Spec} A_{ij}$ with $A_{ij}$ f.g. over $B_i$ for every $j$
(I have no idea what finite type should mean geometrically :/ )
@MikeMiller lol
I see a wild @Mathei appeared, summoned by the mention of schemes
Hi @Balarka
Hi @Alessandro
How is it going?
Not bad
Finite type is just the algebraic analogue of branched cover I believe
A morphism of algebraic varieties is of finite type if it's proper and has finite fibers. The schemey definition should translate to that
I don't think that's true, I think it includes projections of affine space
For isntance I think R -> R[x] is finite type
I think it's silly
see those answers!
wasn't that fun?
Please some one help me in understanding math.stackexchange.com/questions/3031296/… I will be very thankful to you . I am trying this for long time but unsuccessful .
16:18
Abstract algebra is out of my course, there are others out here which can help you
@Amit Multiply the polynomials. If there is an $x^2$ term, subtract off $x^2 + x +1$ (we may do that because it's defined to be 0). Remember that $1=-1$.
@MikeMiller Hm, interesting.
I suppose finite morphisms and morphisms of finite type are different things!
Those wacky "geometers"
There are way too many finiteness conditions around
But I agree with Mike, the projection $\operatorname{Spec} k[x]\to\operatorname{Spec} k$ should be of finite type
k[x] is f.g over k after all
16:21
Oh, of course it is, the only fiber is $\operatorname{Spec} k[x]$ and $k[x]$ is very much a f.g $k$-algebra
And I got sniped
It's more like a bundle with fibers having finite dimension I suppose
Oh, ok, it's precisely like a submersion.
Something like that. But "bundle" is probably weird too
The definition I saw for rings was: of the form $R \to R[x_1, \cdots, x_n]/(f)$
I guess for some collection of f
Fibers are algebraic varieties if the base is $\Bbb A^1$
So for base $\Bbb A^1$ I guess it's a pencil of algebraic varieties
You wanna see a magic trick?
(shoves pencil of varieties up your nose)
I knew you'd do that
@AlessandroCodenotti So surjectivity of $f^\#$ is basically saying that germ of every regular function on $f(X) \subset Y$ (by which I really mean a regular function on $X$, pushedforward by $f$) extends to a germ of regular function on $Y$
$f$ sends $X$ to an "algebraic subset of $Y$", not just a closed subset
16:33
@BalarkaSen This looks suspicious to me, I think I can only say that locally a regular function on $X$ (where I mean $f(x)$ really) comes from restricting a regular function on $Y$
Locally algebraic, right?
I mentioned germ, so stalk level
I should learn about germs tbh, they seem p sick
3
Yeah the germ theory revolutionized our understanding of disease
Hi people, I'm a bit lost with this proof, I am studying order relations from my algebra book (so I have to use Peano axioms and the addition properties). I have to use induction to complete this proof? Or these types of proofs can be proved without induction? math.stackexchange.com/questions/3030013/a-b-and-cd-imply-ac-bd
16:40
@Daminark germs make me quite sick, yes
In fact I am sneezing right now
Wow was that joke intended @Dami? I am very impressed
I didn't realize it until I read Mike's joke, tried to modify it based off of your sentence, and then figured out it might be intentional
@BalarkaSen ah, right
16:59
@AlessandroCodenotti being of finite type is a local property. Locally a closed immersion looks like $\mathrm{Spec}(R/I) \to \mathrm{Spec}(R)$ which is clearly of finite type
oh no, this only shows locally of finite type
@MatheinBoulomenos I don't see why locally a closed immersion locally has that form
@MatheinBoulomenos Presumably this is why we need the image to be globally closed
missed the finite part
this feels like cheating, but: stacks.math.columbia.edu/tag/01QO
condition (2) implies of finite type directly
17:33
the analogue of submersion in AG is smooth morphisms
@Alessandro have you covered what closed subschemes of an affine scheme look like? If you have that, it's not to bad to show that closed immersion => finite type with the definitions you gave
Yes, I know that closed immersions in $\mathrm{Spec} R$ all look like $\mathrm{Spec} R/I\to \mathrm{Spec} R$ for some $I$ (the morphism is induced by $R\to R/I$
We also saw that $f:X\to Y$ is a closed immersion iff there is an open affine cover $Y=\bigcup\mathrm{Spec} R_i$ such that $f^{-1}(\mathrm{Spec}R_i)$ is affine and $O_X(\mathrm{Spec} R_i)\to O_Y(f^{-1}(\mathrm{Spec}R_i))$ is surjective for all $i$ which looks useful here
17:55
If $f:X \to Y$ is a closed immersion, then cover $Y$ be affine opens $X=\bigcup U_i=\bigcup \mathrm{Spec}(R_i)$, then $f(X) \cap U_i$ is closed in $U_i$ for all $i$ and $f(f^{-1}(U_i))=f(X) \cap U_i$ since $f$ is a homeomorphism onto its image. Thus $f_{\mid f^{-1}(U_i)}:f^{-1}(U_i) \to U_i$ is a closed immersion, since restricting a sheaf doesn't change the stalks.
Thus $f^{-1}(U_i)=\mathrm{Spec}(R_i/I_i)$
And since we can pick $U_i$ such that $f^{-1}(U_i)$ is affine this is enough
you don't even need that, it follows that $f^{-1}(U)$ is affine since a closed subscheme of an affine scheme is affine
18:37
@MikeMiller Please don't encourage the Demonark. Something about feeding the ... :D
Hi @Ted!
Hi, a @Balarka.
Hi, demonic @Alessandro.
@AlessandroCodenotti We should read these notes
By which I mean the whole blog from start to end :3
18:47
That's a weird coincidence, I saw the same article earlier this week because Clara Löh has a simplified version of the "universe of groups" picture in her GGT book!
I'm mostly thinking about AG at the moment, I'm planning to catch up with GGT during Christmas break
Oh nice we can do that togather
Sure! That'll be in a couple of weeks for me
@AlessandroCodenotti Geometric group theory?
Hi @Fargle
What's that like? It sounds neat by name.
Hey @Ted! How goes it?
Quick: Who's your favorite mathematician and why?
Smale
For many reasons
Not a bad one to pick. Not my choice, unsurprisingly.
18:52
@Fargle Unlike algebraic geometry, geometric group theory is actually about geometry!
8
Grothendieck. Dude was a boss.
@TedShifrin Yours is Chern for sure :)
Jacques Tits
@AlessandroCodenotti What text(s) are you using?
18:54
Balarka: If I have to pick just one, it's tough. I have to go with Griffiths, too. And Bryant ... (perhaps too young).
Yeah I suppose once you know big swaths of mathematics it's harder to pick one great mathematician
Hm, it's 12:30. I should try to see if I can fix my sleep schedule today
@Fargle Clara Löh: Geometric group theory: an introduction and Serre: Trees are the two reference texts for the course. There are some very terse course notes available here
@Alessandro: Algebraic geometry is full of geometry. It's just the way the modern scheme theory people teach it, you never see it.
Good night, all. Don't start talking fun mathematics while I'm gone!
Wow, a Balarka is un-unsleeping?
18:57
Good night @Balarka
Trying to
"Fun mathematics" is an oxymoron, math sux
Fare thee well, a @Balarka.
(note: I do not hold this opinion in good faith, and refuse to defend it)
I was going to smack you, @Fargle, but decided you weren't serious.
18:58
@TedShifrin I know, we actually saw some interesting examples of schemes that are more geometrically motivated
Always have a disclaimer ready.
Some day you should read some classic stuff, @Alessandro, particularly since so much of the beautiful 19th century foundations is Italian.
@Fargle Whatchu mean

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