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1:05 AM
Let $M$ be a surface in $\mathbb{R}^3$. Then if $\zeta$ is a unit normal vector field on $M$ and $v$ is a unit tangent to $M$ at $p$ and $v$ is an eigenvector of $A_\zeta:T_pM\to T_pM$ say $A_\zeta(v)=\lambda v$, then, if we intersect the normal plane (generated by $\zeta$ and $v$) with $M$, we get a curve with planar curvature exactly $\lambda$ (at $p$). Does this generalizes for hypersurfaces in higher dimensional $\mathbb R^n$?
The problem is that in higher dimensions, the normal plane intersected with the hypersurface gives us something at least 2D, right? So, this does not determine a curve to look at...
 
@AndersonFelipeViveiros: First, the planar curvature is $|\lambda|$. Next, you still have to slice with normal $2$-planes in higher dimensions.
 
1:28 AM
I consistently forget that planar curvature is non-negative.
I know I shouldn't.
 
No, all curvature is non-negative. In the plane you can use signed curvature.
But the signs may not agree; it depends on choice of normal vector.
IF you use the normal vector to orient the plane, then things should agree.
 
Right, and you will never have curvature of a curve that changes sign, yes?
 
No, signed curvature does change sign at inflection points.
 
Ok. I feel that I had this discussion recently with someone else and they told me otherwise. I took them on faith.
My badley, Chadley.
 
I believe I'm qualified on this one. I may have misspoken, but I'm still qualified :P
 
1:35 AM
Yes, I take you as the higher authority than a grad student reviewing his calculus lecture.
I asked precisely whether that was true (existence of signed curvature and whether it changes at inflection points).
Because it seemed clear.
 
well, this doesn't belong in calculus
 
multivar 1 has planar curvature here
 
OK, that's reasonable.
 
Suddenly think of a strange question related to surface. Is there a quantity that characterise how "locally twisted" a point on a surface is?
 
I have no idea what that means.
 
1:44 AM
for example, the point produced when you place your finger on a towel and then twist you finger so the towel become crumbled around the finger. Is there a mathematical characterisation of that point where the twist converges to?
 
So you're talking about singular points.
You can talk about cone angles.
 
Singularities in dimension higher than 1 are very subtle.
 
ear perks up at the mention of singularities
 
LOL, Balarka is back from unsleeping.
 
1:52 AM
are we talking about diffeomorphisms
oh, singular points...interesting
 
hmm...
I don't know... What I do know is that if those three ridges you saw in that photo is more curved, then there is more twisting in the neighbourhood of that singular point, but I am not sure if cone deficit angles is enough to capture the complexity of that
 
No, it's not, Secret. I'm not sure what is.
 
What is the 1D example you are thinking of that involve cone angles?, do you mean the apex of a cone or something more subtle?
 
No, I never said anything about 1D and cone angles. That was for the surface.
 
What are some questions to ask about regular square lattices and diffeomorphisms of regular square lattices
I guess I'm talking about non-rigid transformations
 
2:14 AM
anyone here know anything about mixture distributions
and rejection sampling?
 
Nope.
 
:(
 
That's truly statistics. Is there a Statistics SE?
 
Cross-validated
anyone know about modular flow
 
2:42 AM
or horocyclic flow
 
3:17 AM
@Michael.P I lost the Spivak room. Send the link again?
 
3:31 AM
for nay integer n, 5 does not divide n^2 - 2
i thought of doing two cases of
n even
and n od
if n is even then n^2 multiple of 4
but after that?
 
4:05 AM
Well, it seems people also have the power to flip me over still.
 
Fudgesicle, @BalarkaSen. That sounds like bull-sugar.
 
Well shove up you backstabbing addendum
 
Hi @Aloizio
 
@BAYMAX typically the casework you'd do for divisibility by m is to consider n having remainder 0 mod m, remainder 1 mod m, ..., and remainder m-1 mod m
 
This is a [REDACTED] server, no expletives (such as [REDACTED]) are allowed
 
4:11 AM
@Fargle Yeah we can [EXPUNGED] see that, captain obvious
 
obviously that involves a lot of cases if m is large, but for small m you can just test them all
 
Wow it's like the lamest possible SCP
 
Finally, a promotion from my rank as Lieutenant Obvious
 
yet-another-polytope-problem
 
Stop
No more polytopes
 
4:13 AM
aww
 
@AlessandroCodenotti So I guess you're going to be getting into algebraic group theory
Curiously, that is the theory of algebraic groups, which is not the algebraic theory of groups, because an algebraic group is not a group
 
I should write an answer to this using small cancellation theory
 
if n is even n^2 is even and n^2 - 2 is also even, so when its of the form 2k , so does 5 divide 4k^2 - 2 ? suppose 5 diivides 4k^2 - 2, then 5 must divide 4k^2 and 5 divide 2 but 5 doesnot divide 2 hence it cannot divide 4k^2 - 2 ----- will this work ?? @Semiclassical
 
is that something you use for simple presentations by free groups? so you're cancelling stuff in words?
 
Yeah, you bound the length of the word you cancel when multiplying two relators
 
4:17 AM
@BAYMAX "suppose 5 divides 4k^2-2, then 5 must divide 4k^2 and 5 divide 2" is definitely not sound
 
oh ok
 
If it's less than 1/6-th the length of the relators, the group automatically shows hyperbolicity
 
5 doesn't divide 13 and 5 doesn't divide 2, but 5 does divide 15
 
i m thinking how how
 
Is this your C'(1/6) thing?
 
4:18 AM
to do thius
 
But this is a GGT thing, not an algebra thing
 
like i said, the usual approach by cases is to consider one case for each possible remainder modulo your divisor
 
It's basically combinatorics that C'(1/6) groups have cyclic centralizers
Not quite GGT
but my partial motivation while writing an answer is to learn some GGT
 
I guess what i mean to say is "Is it accessible to OP (who will never read it)?"
 
4:19 AM
I'm dubious that thinking in terms of even/odd will be very helpful, since even/odd numbers can be divisible by 5
 
I will do an expository!
 
Sick
I am excited to read
 
Like all my answers, which are quality as you know
I have started using MSE as a blog basically :p
 
and yet, does anyone actually use the MSE blog?
 
No lol
 
4:21 AM
They actually killed the whole blogSE
@BalarkaSen "You have 7 days"
 
last one is from 2015
 
hm
 
@BAYMAX to get a sense of why the remainders approach is handy: Suppose you write down the first few instances of n^2-5 and see what their remainders mod 5 are
say, write down n^2-2 mod 5 for n=1 through 10
 
@Semiclassical 2,3,4
 
4:27 AM
that's the first three. keep going.
 
did for n=3 to n=7
 
be more precise. What's the list you get?
 
i GOT THE LIST OF REMAINDERS WHEN $N^2 -2$ IS DIVIDED BY 5 IS 2,3 AND 4
SORRY FOR UPPER CPS
Caps
 
@MikeMiller 7 days for what
 
and the remainders keep repeating though, like where they should be repeating!!
@Semiclassical
 
4:31 AM
Right. More precisely, you're getting 4,2,2,4,3,4,2,2,4,3,...
 
left remainders are 0, 1
 
so it's repeating every fifth term
by comparison, if you look at the remainders mod 5 for n=1 on up, you get
 
1,2,3,4,0,1,2,3,4,0,...
 
Oh
Shite
Now I gotta be fast
 
4:33 AM
Yup, @Semiclassical
 
so it has the same periodicity, and the remainder of n mod 5 identifies what the remainder of n^2-2 mod 5 will be
if you can prove that, then the fact that n^2-2 is never divisible by 5 follows from what you've just observed
 
yup
when we dive n by 5
it leaves remainder 0,1,2,3,4
now when we do n^2
it should leave remainders 0,1,4,4,1
 
right
 
when we do -2
leaves us with -2,-1,2,2,-1
and when we do mod 5
3,4,2,2,4
so never with remainder 0
nor 1
 
there's a whole realm of number theory in this vein: Which numbers occur when you take n^2 mod p?
As you've seen, you get 0,1,4 for squares mod 5 but not 2,3
 
4:37 AM
nice!!
 
So 0,1,4 are said to be quadratic residues mod 5
and 2,3 are quadratic nonresidues mod 5
looots of stuff known about that: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quadratic_residue
 
why you included 4 in quadratic residues?
 
(nothing I'm terribly an expert in myself)
Because I'm talking about n^2 mod 5, not n^2-2
 
ohh cool!
i had a question
For every $a,n \in \Bbb{N}$ with n greater than equalto 2, there exists k,l in N such that $n $ divides $a^k -a^l$
 
You're trying to show that?
 
4:42 AM
prove or disprove that -
1 min ago, by BAYMAX
For every $a,n \in \Bbb{N}$ with n greater than equalto 2, there exists k,l in N such that $n $ divides $a^k -a^l$
 
Ah.
Where does N start for you, at zero or one?
 
starts from 0
 
okay
in terms of modular arithmetic, you're wanting to show that you can always find k,l such that a^k = a^l mod n
(so long as n>=2)
Simplest proof I can think of is the pigeonhole principle: a^k mod n is some value from 0 to n-1
Actually. Hmm. I think one could make that work but I'm not totally sure it's valid come to think of it
 
hmmm
 
i mean, the basic observation is this: Suppose you start writing the various values for a^k mod n
If you ever see the same value twice in that list, then take those indices as k,l to get an example
And the fact that the values you get mod n must be between 0 and n-1 means that you eventually have to repeat something in that list
you can't write down an infinite list of numbers using 0,1,2,...n-1 without eventually repeating yourself
The pigeonhole principle is the relevant concept from combinatorics.
 
4:51 AM
0
Q: Divisibility of the difference of powers

Joe Z.Consider the following theorem: For any $a, b \in \mathbb{Z}^+$, there exist $m, n \in \mathbb{Z}$ such that $m > n$ and $a\ |\ b^m - b^n$. What's the best way to prove it? I have an idea (and I know it's true because of that idea), but I don't know how rigorous it is to constitute a proof.

 
oh hey
that looks pretty much what I was sketching
 
says it is enough to ocnsider $0 \leq n,m \leq a$
 
for reference:
In mathematics, the pigeonhole principle states that if n {\displaystyle n} items are put into m {\displaystyle m} containers, with n > m {\displaystyle n>m} , then at least one container must contain more than one item. This theorem is exemplified in real life by truisms like "in any group of three gloves there must be at least two left gloves or at least two right gloves". It is an example of a counting argument. This seemingly obvious statement can...
 
but for m ei ht equestion it has only given distinct k and l
so i think if we add the condition
$0 \leq k,l \leq n$
then only the statekment would be true?
 
You can assume without loss of generality that $k>l$
 
4:56 AM
okay but i was interpreting this case for my problem -
3 mins ago, by BAYMAX
says it is enough to ocnsider $0 \leq n,m \leq a$
for my problem this condiiton would be $0 \leq k,l \leq n$
 
Sure.
They're arguing that it's sufficient to consider that.
 
but i was saying that since in my question it says that distinct k,l but has never givien such conditon
so it should be false right
 
oh ok got it!
 
Their point is that you can find $k,l$ in that range, then you can certainly find them without that condition.
 
4:59 AM
@MikeMiller Thanks @MikeMiller
 
oh ok
so we need remainder(a^k / n) = remainder(a^l / n)
 
So for instance, if n=100, you only need to write down a^k mod 100 for k=0 to 100. You're guaranteed to repeat remainders mod 100 somewhere along that list.
You can of course find examples with k,l larger than 100. but you only need one such example, so you don't need to look farter than that
 
but seems to be much experimenting, like no rigorus proof?
seems would need to code a program
 
Nah. The pigeonhole principle makes it precise.
Make a set of n boxes, one for each possible remainder mod n.
Then start writing down powers of a, and putting them into boxes depending on which remainder you get.
Suppose you do that a total of n times (so a^k for k=0 through n-1) so that you've inserted n possible numbers into those boxes.
 
ok
 
5:07 AM
At this point, it's conceivable that no box has more than one number in it: one number for each of the n boxes.
 
yup
 
however, if I then write down even one more power, then i must put it in an already occupied box
and therefore I'll have my repeat.
So I only need to consider n+1 different powers. Therefore, it suffices to consider k=0 through n.
 
yup
 
Hence I must repeat a box eventually. Since whichever powers $a^k,a^l$ which I put into that same box have the same remainder mod $n$, we have $a^k=a^l$ mod $n$
i.e. $n$ divides $a^k-a^l$.
This is essentially the idea which is in the earlier answer, just with the pigeonhole principle being used explicitly
 
@BalarkaSen What do you know about spectral sequences?
 
5:11 AM
I see, thanks@Semiclassical
 
I have done one or two computations
But I am not at all comfortable with it
 
Do you want to do the Serre SS computation from that post with me?
 
I know the Serre spectral sequence and for simple enough bundles I can get the E^infty page
Erm not right now though
 
Okie doke
 
 
1 hour later…
6:33 AM
@MikeMiller So $\Bbb Z_2$ acts freely on $S^2 \times S^2$ and quotient is $X$. I take the classifying map $X \to B\Bbb Z_2$
Homotopy fiber is $S^2 \times S^2$
 
@BalarkaSen Start by telling me what SS starts from and where it goes to
In general
 
First of all, does the base act trivially on cohomology of fiber? $\pi_1 B\Bbb Z_2 \cong \Bbb Z_2$ and the action of $1$ is just by $f_*$ where $f$ is the self-map of $S^2 \times S^2$ given by $f(x, y) = (-x, -y)$, I guess?
That's not trivial on $H_2$... what am I messing up?
 
You're correct that's not trivial on $H_2$
What's the statement of SSS you know?
 
By the end of this conversation it'll be "So we compute SSSSSSSS..."
 
I want to know Fundamental theorem of calculus better, hence I was staring at this seductive pic. What I can't understand is in $\int_a^b f(x)\,dx=F(b)-F(a)$, why do we need to subtract $F(a)?$ Can I see that in the linked pic?
 
6:38 AM
I am just inconsistent between Serre Spectralsequence and Serre Spectral Sequence
The latter is better because I do not believe it abbreviates to a well-known nazi organization
 
I have a fiber bundle $F \to X \to B$ such that $\pi_1 B$ acts trivially on $H_* F$. Then there's a spectral sequence with $E^2$ page $H_q(B; H_p(F))$, differentials going diagonally, such that there is a filtration of $H_n(X)$ with successive quotients being $E^\infty_{k, n-k}$.
Homology of $E^i$ is $E^{i+1}$, $E^\infty$ is whatever survives at all pages
 
Ahhh. Well, if you follow through the proof, there is no difficulty removing that nasty assumption.
$\pi_1 B$ does not need to act trivially on $H_* F$. Rather, that becomes a local system on $B$. The SSS still starts from $H_q(B; H_p F)$.
No change at all in the proof, just epsilon more work identifying the $E_2$ page (which you can still do by hand).
 
Ahh, I know that one
I have encountered it while going through the proof in de Rham context.
 
This is the version I want to use today
 
OK, I don't know how to compute cohomology with local coefficients though, but I will learn that today I suppose. Go slow!
 
6:44 AM
I am going to cheat.
So, what is the $E_2$ page in this case?
Not explicitly yet, just abstractly.
 
OK, $E^2_{p, q} = H_p(\Bbb{RP}^\infty; H_q(S^2 \times S^2))$.
For $q = 1$ and $q > 4$ it's all 0
 
1) I guess we should probably know the action, huh?
2) is there another name for this?
 
Alpha Testers Please:
ZoomSpace my app
Desktop app
No viruses
:D
@Daminark
@BalarkaSen
 
Before thinking about those two, it's also easy for $q = 0, 3, 4$, right? $H_3 = 0$ by PD and the action on $H_0$ because nothing happens to connected components when we flip, and $H_4 \cong H^0$ (or, nothing happens to fundamental class/orientation when we flip)
So $q = 2$ is indeed the only problem, where we have to compute actual twisted homology instead of standard vanilla singular homology.
 
@BalarkaSen nice avatar
@Daminark nice avatar, mspaint.exe?
 
6:55 AM
@BalarkaSen Yeah, I agree.
 
So for $q = 2$, $\underline{\Bbb Z \oplus \Bbb Z}$ is the sheaf on $\Bbb{RP}^\infty$ you get when replacing the fibers of $S^\infty \to \Bbb{RP}^\infty$ by $\Bbb Z \oplus \Bbb Z$.
Kind of
I don't know how to say it.
 
I know what you mean, but you're going slightly off game here.
What's special about the base?
(Also, very precisely what is the action of $\pi_1 B$ on $H_2$? I'd like to see this presented as a standard abelian group with an endomorphism,)
 
(I think I meant that the pullback of the sheaf to $S^\infty$ is the constant sheaf with values in $\Bbb Z^2$) The action of $\Bbb Z_2$ on $\Bbb Z^2$ is $1 \cdot (x, y) = (-x, -y)$ - the diagonal action of $\Bbb Z_2$ by the only nontrivial automorphism of $\Bbb Z$.
Do you want me to say that the sheaf trivializes away from $\Bbb{RP}^1 \subset \Bbb{RP}^\infty$? I guess it's not clicking with me.
I guess I have a homomorphism $H_*(S^\infty; \Bbb Z^2) \to H_*(\Bbb{RP}^\infty; \underline{\Bbb Z^2})$ by the pullback thing I said, by functoriality of sheaf cohomology.
Should I try to understand this homomorphism?
 
7:13 AM
No
I want you to tell me what you know about RP^infty
(Don't think cohomology)
(Homology of $S^infty$ is zero)
 
@MikeMiller True, dumb of me.
Even for singular homology that hom gives no information
(Well, by Bockstein it does, but whatever)
 
RP^infty is very special and we will exploit this
 
Do you want me to do the explicit computation, making $\Bbb Z^2$ a $\Bbb Z[\Bbb Z_2]$-module using the action, and taking tensor product with the cellular chain complex of $S^\infty$?
Oh, the local homology in this case is a certain group homology, I suppose.
 
That's what I wanted!
 
It's $H_*(\Bbb Z^2; \Bbb Z[\Bbb Z_2])$ isn't it?
 
7:23 AM
A local system over K(G,1) is a G-module A, and the local system (co)homology is group (co)homology with coefficients in A.
 
Right. Nice!!
(A is like a bundle over G, so it makes sense)
 
Yup. Now, the way you just suggested is the way to do the computation explicitly - use cell structure of $S^\infty$.
Right, a G-module is a bundle over BG
But you could also just use a link I was about to provide that gives group cohomology of cyclic groups.
9
Q: Group cohomology of the cyclic group

Diana ScottIt is well known how to compute cohomology of a finite cyclic group $C_m=\langle \sigma \rangle$, just using the periodic resolution, $\require{AMScd}$ \begin{CD} \cdots @>N>> \mathbb Z C_m @> \sigma -1>> \mathbb Z C_m @>N>> \mathbb Z C_m @> \sigma -1>> \mathbb Z C_m @> >> \mathbb Z \en...

Tbh I just go there whenever I need one of these calculations.
 
Cool. It all makes sense.
Should I write down $E^2$ explicitly now?
 
So now it's time to use that to pencil in your diagram
Yup
For fun, do it with Z and also Z/2 coefficients
Actually F where F is not characteristic 2 is also fun
 
I'm heading for lunch now; I'll try to write it down. Computing the group homology will take me time for sure since I have forgotten all algebra
 
7:35 AM
I was suggesting just using the computation there
 
But I see that the rest is not hard; the nonzero rows of the $E^2$ page alternates, so $E^2 = E^\infty$, isn't it?
@MikeMiller Erm I don't see how the link computes $H_*(\Bbb Z^2; \Bbb Z[\Bbb Z_2])$
 
I am doing cohomology and it does it with all coefficients
Also, thYs not the correct Z/2 action
 
Oh, I have the homology groups wrong.
 
Also the thing you're thinking of is that if some page is concentrated in even bidegree (2p, 2q), all differentials are zero - but there could be d_3 or d_5 in our picture
 
Oh, $E^2 = E^3$.
 
7:39 AM
There must be some, in fact. It converges to the cohomology of a 4-manifold!
Yup!
 
 
2 hours later…
9:13 AM
@MikeMiller I don't get it. $H_n(\Bbb{RP}^\infty; \underline{\Bbb Z^2})$ is the cohomology of $C_*(S^\infty) \otimes_{\Bbb Z[\Bbb Z_2]} \Bbb Z^2$. In the standard cellulation of $S^\infty$, $C_*(S^\infty)$ is $\cdots \to \Bbb Z^2 \to \Bbb Z^2 \to \Bbb Z^2$, where every map $\Bbb Z^2 \to \Bbb Z^2$ sends $(1, 0)$ and $(0, 1)$ both to $(1, 1)$.
Where standard cellulation of $S^\infty$ is lift of the cellulation of $\Bbb{RP}^\infty$ to $S^\infty$, so in each dimension I have two cells.
So when I tensor with $\otimes_{\Bbb Z[\Bbb Z_2]} \Bbb Z^2$, doesn't it remain the same chain complex, and homology is zero??
I should take the augmented $C_*(S^\infty)$, which is $\cdots \to \Bbb Z^2 \to \Bbb Z^2 \to \Bbb Z \to 0$.
And the group homology is $H_*(\Bbb Z[\Bbb Z_2]; \Bbb Z^2)$, right?
Er, $H_*(\Bbb Z_2; \Bbb Z^2)$ I mean
No, in $\Bbb Z^2 \otimes_{\Bbb Z[\Bbb Z_2]} \Bbb Z^2$, $\Bbb Z_2$ acts on the two copies of $\Bbb Z^2$ in very different ways. In the first copy, $1 \cdot (x, y) = (y, x)$. In the second copy $1 \cdot(x, y) = (-x, -y)$
I'll try this computation out later today, I need sleep before this. Too many different actions, too many Z's, too many 2's
But it's $H_*(\Bbb Z_2; \Bbb Z^2)$ we are computing, that's for sure.
 
9:43 AM
...
@Haran here?
 
> ... THIS SEEMS PLAINLY ABSURD; BUT WHOEVER WISHES TO BECOME A
PHILOSOPHER MUST LEARN NOT TO BE FRIGHTENED BY ABSURDITIES.

-- BERTRAND RUSSELL
In fact, a good philosopher embraces absurdity without losing sense
 
@BalarkaSen Yeah. The action is by negation.
 
 
1 hour later…
11:18 AM
.
 
Creation retold under ZFC. 2nd attempt:
In the beginning, there is God (some kind of meta thing that ensures the existence of mathematics itself)
Day 1, God created classical logic
Day 2, God created nothing $\varnothing$
Day 3, classical logic defined induction and the Peano axioms
Day 4, God created the union of sets
Day 5, God created unordered pairs
Day 6, From nothing, Union and unordered pairs, by induction, comes something, the finite ordinals and finite sets
Day 7, God created subsets and powersets
Day 8, God banish sets that contain itself
Day 9, God made all sets unique
Day 10, God ensures all definable functions maps to subsets
 
12:01 PM
Day 11, God created the first infinity, $\omega$
On the final day, God choose to well order all his creations. And he then go to rest
 
 
2 hours later…
2:01 PM
@Secret ZFC=>PA, but to create ZFC we don't need them
Also, unordered pairs and union of unordered pairs is meaningless(does not add anything) if you have union
 
Well, I am trying to say axiom of pairing when I mentioned unordered pairs
 
3:09 PM
@Secret Oh
 
3:57 PM
hey guys
Hey I have a question, why are we allowed to cancel common factors in division?
 
4:12 PM
@Dude156 Because a/b = c means ( a = b·c and b ≠ 0 ), so you can see what happens with common factors.
 
4:35 PM
Hi. Do you know if the result is correct or not? math.stackexchange.com/questions/3032571/question-on-forms
 
5:24 PM
Am I missing something, or is the claim asked about in math.stackexchange.com/questions/3032421/… wrong? It seems to me that there should be an embedding of rings, since one is the algebraic closure of the field of fractions of the other (assuming choice).
 
@TobiasKildetoft sure there is an embedding of rings but not R-algebras
 
@LeakyNun Right, that was my conclusion (the embedding of rings is just weird of course)
 
@TobiasKildetoft I'm trying to formalize the statement $R[S][T] = R[S \cup T]$
and I'm not sure how to state it
$i:R \to A$ is an $R$-algebra, and $S, T \subseteq A$
so naturally $R[S \cup T]$ is an $R$-subalgebra of $i$
what is $R[S][T]$?
 
Funny problem, at first I thought I need a trascendental over $\Bbb R$ in $\Bbb C$ to play the role of $x$, which is impossible, but there actually is such an embedding, with a bit of choice of course
 
if we want $R[S][T]$ then first we need to make an algebra $i^S : R[S] \to A$
which is possible because $R[S]$ is a subring of $A$ (but in doing so we forgot that $i_S : R \to R[S]$ is a subalgebra of $i$)
and at this point I am way too hungry to think about all this nonsense
 
5:37 PM
Problem: Given spaces $X,Y$, let $[X,Y]$ denote the homotopy classes of maps of $X$ into $Y$. If $X=I = [0,1]$ and $Y$ is path-connected, prove that $[X,Y]$ has a single element. Attempt: Let $f : I \to Y$ be some continuous map. It suffices to show $f$ is homotopic to the constant path from $y_0 \in Y$ to $y_0$. For every $s \in I$, there is a path $p_s$ from $f(s)$ to $y_0$. Consider $H : I \times I \to Y$ defined by $H(s,t) = p_s(t)$. Then $H(s,0) = p_s(0) = f(s)$ and $H(s,1) = p_s(1) = y_0$.
But it isn't obvious that $H$ is continuous.
How do I show that $H$ is continuous?
 
1. $i^R_A : R \to A$
2. $j^R_S : \operatorname{sub}(i^R_A) : R \to R[S]$
3. $i^R_S : R \to R[S]$
4. $R[S] \subseteq A$
5. $i^S_A : R[S] \to A$
6. $j^S_T : \operatorname{sub}(i^S_A) : R[S] \to R[S][T]$
7. $(i^R_S)^{-1} (j^S_T) : \operatorname{sub}(i^R_A) : R \to R[S][T]$
so somehow I need to create pullback of subalgebras
 
Sanity check: The product in $\mathsf{Sch}/S$ is the fibered product over $S$ in $\mathsf{Sch}$, right?
 
@AlessandroCodenotti yes
depending on the definition of "is"
you have a forgetful functor Sch/S -> Sch
that sends product to fibred product over S
 
Yes, yes, modulo technicalities
 
sorry I've been thinking about technicalities too much
 
5:48 PM
Because if I draw the diagram for a product and then add the two bonus arrows toward S I immediately get that the product in Sch/S has the same universal product as the fibered product in Sch
 
6:11 PM
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Q: Solve the following system of equations using Gaussian Elimination Method

blue_eyed_...Solve the following system of equations using Gaussian Elimination Method $$x+2y+3z=2$$ $$x+y-z=1$$ $$2x+3y+2z=3$$. My Attempt : $$x+2y+3z=2………(1)$$ $$x+y-z=1…………(2)$$ $$2x+3y+2z=3………(3)$$ Subtracting equation $(1)$ from equation $(2)$, we have $$y+4z=1………(4)$$ Multiplying equation $(1)$ by $2...

 
 
1 hour later…
7:12 PM
I've kind of done the first one, but I'm a bit confused over the second one. Any ideas?
 
7:43 PM
What does it mean when a question is "protected"
Oh I see
 
8:11 PM
Hello, is the matrix A here (youtube.com/watch?v=oaiiyIsbNdI) always the Hessian matrix of the quadratic form?
 
8:48 PM
@user10478 im not watching your link, but any symmetric matrix $A$ is the hessian of the quadratic form $x\mapsto x^t A x /2$
 
Hello
Let $f: \mathbb{R} to \mathbb{R}$ with the properties: $f(x)>0, \forall x \geq 0$, $f$ is decreasing and $f'(0)=0$. I want to prove that $f''(x)=0$ for some $x>0$.
Could you give me a hint?
 

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