@JonasTeuwen Yes, I think better show my understanding with example.
$c_n=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}f(x)e^{-inx} dx=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} \left(e^{-ix/2}\right) e^{-inx} dx=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} e^{-ix/2-inx} dx$
...then...
$c_n=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\pi}^{\pi} e^{-(x/2+nx)} d x$
(I wish I could find some easy way to proof-read things with Vim...)