@TedShifrin can't we translate the orientation argument to LA? Take the volume form $\Omega^{n/2}$, then if $f$ satisfies $f^*(\Omega)=\Omega$, then we will also have $f^*(\Omega^{n/2})=\Omega^{n/2}$ since pullbacks commute with wedge products. But $f^*(\Omega^{n/2})=\operatorname{det}(f) \Omega^{n/2}$
@MaryStar: First, it makes no sense to pull $b-a$ out. You have to apply the linear map to the vector $(b-a)$, but there's no contradiction to saying that that integral will be $0$.
Yeah, but I'm the differential forms person. So badder me.
No, @Mathein, by my definition of volume form $\Omega^n$ is something like $n!$ times the volume form on $\Bbb R^{2n}$. (You shouldn't have $n/2$'s in there.)
@MikeMiller do you know if there are classifications of finite subgroups of $SO(n)$ for $n>3$? The case $n=3$ is pretty well known. The thing with periodic Tate cohomology has made that question a lot more interesting for me
Also are there more conditions than just acting freely and orientation-preservingly? Certainly cyclic groups also act in such a way on a $2$-sphere, but the Tate-cohomology is not 3-periodic
I found this $A$ is compact iff for any family of closed set from E $\cap F_i\subset E\setminus A$ there exists a finite sub family $\cap_{I\in J}F_i\subset E\setminus A$
a covering is something such that the union contains the subspace you consider (or is equal to the whole space if you consider coverings of the whole space)
I don't get this, what is so nice about a diffeomorphism. I mean that two smooth Manifolds being diffeomorphic to each other depends upon what kind of a smooth structure is imposed. But I can give those Manifolds some absurd smooth structure and they will no longer be diffeomorphic to each other.
Another way to phrase this will be, what does a diffeomorphism say about the smooth structure that has been imposed
This question is more motivated from a physics perspective but are infinite dimensional manifolds interesting structures to study? Like can we do things like define cotangent spaces and subsequently differential forms and other things which are done for finite dimensional Manifolds on them as well or do we fall into some trouble?
[Galois Descent (for Algebras)] [statement only] Let $F/E$ be a Galois extension with Galois group $\Gamma := \operatorname{Gal}(F/E)$. For an $E$-algebra $B$, a semilinear action by $\Gamma$ is a map $\varphi : \Gamma \times B \to B$ satisfying $\varphi(\sigma, eb) = \sigma(e) \varphi(\sigma, b)$ for every $e \in E$ and $b \in B$. Writing $\sigma(b)$ for $\varphi(\sigma,b)$, the conditoin becomes $\sigma(eb) = \sigma(e) \sigma(b)$. Then, the category of ($F$-algebras) is equivalent with the category of ($E$-algebras with semilinear action by $\Gamma$)
@Albas I know nothing about these things - but I think they show up in the context of things like moduli space of complex structures etc - which one might want to look at eg if they want to do gromov witten theory via differential (rather than algebraic) geometry - I can't guarantee what I'm saying here is accurate though
By differential I guess I probably meant symplectic
I think this should also follow from the fact that $H^1(\Gamma,\operatorname{GL}_n(K))=\{1\}$ which should also give a profinite version of thi if $K/F$ is not finite, but I'm too lazy to work out the details right now
I want to prove that each continuous function $f$ in a closed and bounded interval $[a,b]$ can be approximated uniformly with polynomials, as good as we want, i.e. for a given positive $\epsilon$, there is a polynomial $p$ such that
$$\max_{a \leq x \leq b} |f(x)-p(x)|< \epsilon.$$
Firstly, we should make sure that we can assume without loss of generality that the interval $[a,b]$ is contained in the open interval $(-\pi,\pi)$.
This document defines the operator norm on $B(H)$ as $||T|| = \sup_{||x||=1} ||Tx||$, and the proceeds with the following calculation: $||T^*T|| = \sup_{||x||=1=||y||} |\langle T^*Tx,y \rangle | = \sup_{||x||=1=||y||} | \langle Tx,Ty \rangle| = ||T||^2$
Why are there two variables ($x$ and $y$) involved in that calculation? That doesn't follow the given definition. I don't understand the calculation.
By the way, I am referring to page 16 (or 18) in that document.
From my understanding, $||T^*T|| = \sup_{||x||=1} \sqrt{\langle T^* Tx, T^* Tx \rangle}$, which doesn't even remotely agree with the calculation.
So suppose a finite group $G$ acts freely on S^n, can we write down a period complex $P_\bullet$ of $G$-modules such that for any $G$-module $A$, the Tate cohomology is the homology of the complex $Hom_G(P_\bullet,A)$?
When $n$ is even, it is easy to classify groups which act freely on $S^n$ using degree theory: if $G$ acts on $S^n$, then associating to each element $g \in G$ the degree of the map obtained from multiplication by $g$, one gets a map $d : G \to \{\pm 1\}$. It is easy to verify this is a homomorph...
@MikeMiller another question, about covering spaces. Since covering spaces of $X$ are equivalent to $\pi_1(X)$-Sets (or locally constant set-valued sheaves), we see that the category of them is complete and cocomplete. How do we compute limits and colimits? Just like in the slice category $\mathbf{Top}/X$?
@Semiclassical $\frac{\text{ko} e^{-i \text{ko} z} (3604299271372800+\text{ko} z (\text{ko} z (-162886633273665+\text{ko} z (\text{ko} z (3847551062985+\text{ko} z (415261645785 i-11 \text{ko} z (3174578001+13 \text{ko} z (\text{ko} z (-720450+17 \text{ko} z (19 \text{ko} z-1275 i))+15601572 i))))-28107268226100 i))+763603178502465 i))}{1802149635686400}$ (20 terms for fun)
> 1.9-13.9 I 34.-9. I 34.-9. I 30.+59. I 30.+59. I -85.+68. I -85.+68. I -1.3*10^2-8.*10^1 I -1.3*10^2-8.*10^1 I 2.*10^1-1.8*10^2 I 2.*10^1-1.8*10^2 I 1.7*10^2-8.*10^1 I 1.7*10^2-8.*10^1 I 1.4*10^2+8.*10^1 I 1.4*10^2+8.*10^1 I
If $\alpha$ is the only real root of the equation $x^3+ bx^2 +cx +1=0$ $(b<c)$, then what can we say about $\sin \alpha$? I know that $\alpha<0$ (leakynun explained it)
@TedShifrin Specifically the question is: Find the value of $2\arctan (\csc \alpha)+ \arctan(2\sin\alpha \sec^2 \alpha)$ which simplifies to $2(\arctan \sin(\alpha)+ \arctan (\csc \alpha))$ . Then it eventually boils down to finding the sign of sin alpha because that decides whether the answer is $-\pi$ or $\pi$
No, @JakeRose. But for $2\times 2$ matrices if you have the correct eigenvalues, it's very easy, because the rows will be multiples of one another, so you just need a vector orthogonal to one of the rows. How do you give me a vector orthogonal to $(a,b)$?
@Abcd: Oh, I see. If you know that equation has only one real root (so everything else is irrelevant), the fact that the polynomial $f(x)=x^3+bx^2+cx+1$ has value $1$ at $0$ means the graph must cross the $x$-axis before you get to $x=0$. So the root must be negative.
For any non-archimedean local field $K$ (ring of integers $\mathcal O_k$ and residue field $k$), the following three categories are canonically equivalent: 1. $L/K$ finite unramified extension 2. $R/\mathcal O_K$ unramified ring extension 3. $l/k$ finite separable extension
If $l/k$ is a finite extension, then this is the splitting field of some irreducible polynomial. $\operatorname{Gal}(k^{alg}/k)$ acts on the roots of that polynomial
@LeakyNun if $l/k$ is finite, then the topology is constructed such that $\operatorname{Gal}(k^{alg}/k) \to \operatorname{Gal}(l/k)$ is continuous with the discrete topology on the RHS
note that this is also equivalent to the category of finite coverings of $S^1$