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19:00
With just $c_1$ in there, the result is false.
So your proof isn't going to do it, as you're using just the usual Jacobian matrix.
Oh you're right. It's a typo. It should be:

\begin{equation*}\det \begin{pmatrix}\frac{\partial{f_1}}{\partial{x_1}}(c_1) & \ldots & \frac{\partial{f_1}}{\partial{x_n}}(c_1)\\ \vdots & \vdots & \vdots \\ \frac{\partial{f_n}}{\partial{x_1}}(c_n) & \ldots & \frac{\partial{f_n}}{\partial{x_n}}(c_n)\end{pmatrix}\neq 0 \ \text{ for all } c_1, c_2, \ldots , c_n\in G\end{equation*}

@TedShifrin
@TedShifrin can't we translate the orientation argument to LA? Take the volume form $\Omega^{n/2}$, then if $f$ satisfies $f^*(\Omega)=\Omega$, then we will also have $f^*(\Omega^{n/2})=\Omega^{n/2}$ since pullbacks commute with wedge products. But $f^*(\Omega^{n/2})=\operatorname{det}(f) \Omega^{n/2}$
OK, now I believe it might be right, but your proof sure won't work, @MaryStar.
Sure, symplectic gives volume-preserving, @Mathein, but you won't get complex linear.
Oh, you're trying to prove $\det = 1$
@TedShifrin Ah ok. But why? Which is the mistake?
@TedShifrin yes, that's what I want to prove
19:02
Yeah, I thought that's why you brought up the Pfaffian
Right, but I think Mathein's right that there's an easier proof of that.
I couldn't think of any at least
Is there a simple way to see that $\Omega^{n/2} \neq 0$?
That is the definition of non-degenerate
@MaryStar: First, it makes no sense to pull $b-a$ out. You have to apply the linear map to the vector $(b-a)$, but there's no contradiction to saying that that integral will be $0$.
19:04
okay, then the proof should be pretty simple
$f^*(\Omega^{n/2})=\operatorname{det}(f) \Omega^{n/2}$ is actually the definition of the determinant I was given
(with any non-degenerate $n$-form)
Yeah I should have just recited that at you immediately
But did not think it
Nor did I. Bad me.
You are in good company
BTW, @Mathein, the volume form will need a factorial in the denominator. :P
Or bad company, as it were
19:06
@TedShifrin no way, my proof works over $\Bbb F_2$
Yeah, but I'm the differential forms person. So badder me.
No, @Mathein, by my definition of volume form $\Omega^n$ is something like $n!$ times the volume form on $\Bbb R^{2n}$. (You shouldn't have $n/2$'s in there.)
I can just omit the term "volume form" from the proof
Try squaring $dx\wedge dy + du\wedge dv$ :P
Well, fine, then.
OK, lunchtime for me. Back later.
Maybe my notion of non-degenerate is wrong over F_2
I just mean Omega gives an isomorphism to the dual space
@MikeMiller I don't think so. The only thing that changes is that alternating is no longer the same as antisymmetric
19:09
Over the reals at least ((maybe everywhere I have done 0 thought)) this implies the top power is nonzero
other than that, exterior powers work as usual
hmm, I have to think about it
No, your proof doesn't work in characteristic $2$.
ah, too bad
And the way I would do that off the top of my head is showing the existence of a symplectic basis
the thing with determinants also holds in characteristic
19:11
See my comment about squaring that $2$-form. You get $0$ in characteristic $2$. Things go crazy with skew-symmetric matrices in characteristic $2$.
The Pfaffian stuff probably doesn't work in weird characteristic, either.
Off to lunch.
@TedShifrin what if I lift to $\Bbb Z$, then normalize, then reduce the normalized form?
That's what I figured but I didn't want to think about whether it was non degenerate
@Mathei How can you normalize? You hella divide by 2
@TedShifrin So, do you mean that I have to make something completely different? But what?
Algebraic De Rham cohomology also doesn't work in char p
maybe there's something pathological with alternating forms in finite characteristic
ah, I think the exterior algebra exists, but it's no longer a quotient of the tensor algebra in char p
19:17
Oh I see now why det Sp(2n) = 1 in characteristic p lol
@Mathei I think the keyword is divided power algebra
@MikeMiller good point
do these actually come up in topology?
How do I split $2^{2r+1}$ into x and y such that $x- y = 2^ r$ and $xy = 2^{2r+1}$
Is it possible? (need this for an inverse trig series)
I have never seen them @MatheinBoulomenos
Maybe when talking about Chern classes, there are some arguments where n! appears
19:35
@MikeMiller do you know if there are classifications of finite subgroups of $SO(n)$ for $n>3$? The case $n=3$ is pretty well known. The thing with periodic Tate cohomology has made that question a lot more interesting for me
(never mind, that question^)
Also are there more conditions than just acting freely and orientation-preservingly? Certainly cyclic groups also act in such a way on a $2$-sphere, but the Tate-cohomology is not 3-periodic
Hello, what is the definition of compact set using closed covering
?
every set of closed sets covering the space admits a finite subset of closed sets that still covers the space
I would guess
are you sure that is equivalent to being compact?
I'm quite sure it isn't
and I don't think there's a definition in terms of closed coverings
19:48
no I'm not sure at all, it was just a guess /shrug
rip guess
Take the cofinite topology on an infinite set, where a set is open iff it's empty or the complement is finite
this is compact
but you can cover it with infinitely many closed singletons which doesn't have a finite subcover
math.stackexchange.com/questions/2804546/… what is Aortiz getting at with his comment on my question
I found this $A$ is compact iff for any family of closed set from E $\cap F_i\subset E\setminus A$ there exists a finite sub family $\cap_{I\in J}F_i\subset E\setminus A$
yeah, but that's not a "closed covering"
19:54
how?
@MatheinBoulomenos i want to prove that the intersection of compact sets is compact using closed covering
a covering is something such that the union contains the subspace you consider (or is equal to the whole space if you consider coverings of the whole space)
@MaryStar Here's a hint: What does the mean value theorem (as you were doing it) tell you for each component function $f_i$ separately?
I don't get this, what is so nice about a diffeomorphism.
I mean that two smooth Manifolds being diffeomorphic to each other depends upon what kind of a smooth structure is imposed. But I can give those Manifolds some absurd smooth structure and they will no longer be diffeomorphic to each other.

Another way to phrase this will be, what does a diffeomorphism say about the smooth structure that has been imposed
@Albas That makes no sense to me
A diffeomorphism says that the two smooth structures are "the same". It does not say anything about them individually
Also, who says you can find "absurd" smooth structures?
20:11
@TobiasKildetoft what I meant to say is that there might be other smooth structures for which the Manifolds are not diffeomorphic to each other.
Yes, of course
So a diffeomorphism basically shows us which two smooth structures are same in some sense
just like there might be other topologies for which they are not homeomorphic
@Albas it's kinda like saying rings are uninteresting because I can make isomorphic groups nonisomorphic by imposing different ring structures
@AlessandroCodenotti Ahh I see.
20:19
@TedShifrin Do you mean from $f(b)-f(a)=(b-a)\int_0^1J_f(a+t(b-a))dt $ ?
This question is more motivated from a physics perspective but are infinite dimensional manifolds interesting structures to study?
Like can we do things like define cotangent spaces and subsequently differential forms and other things which are done for finite dimensional Manifolds on them as well or do we fall into some trouble?
good morning
20:44
@MatheinBoulomenos are you here?
Does Galois descent fail if your fields have characterstic $p$ and Galois group being a $p$-group?
@loch hi
Hey
@LeakyNun I don't think so
@MatheinBoulomenos I feel like surjectivity of $B^\Gamma \otimes_F K \to B$ relies on taking average
@loch did you see my statement of Galois descent?
20:46
Hey@loch
20 hours ago, by Leaky Nun
[Galois Descent (for Algebras)] [statement only]
Let $F/E$ be a Galois extension with Galois group $\Gamma := \operatorname{Gal}(F/E)$.
For an $E$-algebra $B$, a semilinear action by $\Gamma$ is a map $\varphi : \Gamma \times B \to B$ satisfying $\varphi(\sigma, eb) = \sigma(e) \varphi(\sigma, b)$ for every $e \in E$ and $b \in B$.
Writing $\sigma(b)$ for $\varphi(\sigma,b)$, the conditoin becomes $\sigma(eb) = \sigma(e) \sigma(b)$.
Then, the category of ($F$-algebras) is equivalent with the category of ($E$-algebras with semilinear action by $\Gamma$)
do you mean $(B \otimes_F K)^\Gamma \to B$? $\Gamma$ doesn't act on the first component
oh I changed variables
eh
$K$ is the bigger field now
$F$ is the smaller field
$B$ is an algebra over $K$ with a semilinear $\Gamma$-action
Then $B^\Gamma$ is an algebra over $F$
now we want to show that $B^\Gamma \otimes_F K = B$
@LeakyNun uh yeah but I don't think I have time to think about it now lol
oh okay
@LeakyNun it's enough to prove this for vector spaces, that's probably easier
20:53
@MatheinBoulomenos right, but I'm saying that surjectivity requires taking average
the proof in Keith Conrad's notes doesn't take averages
@Albas I know nothing about these things - but I think they show up in the context of things like moduli space of complex structures etc - which one might want to look at eg if they want to do gromov witten theory via differential (rather than algebraic) geometry - I can't guarantee what I'm saying here is accurate though
By differential I guess I probably meant symplectic
@MatheinBoulomenos could you point me to the page number?
interesting
20:58
I think this should also follow from the fact that $H^1(\Gamma,\operatorname{GL}_n(K))=\{1\}$ which should also give a profinite version of thi if $K/F$ is not finite, but I'm too lazy to work out the details right now
(that's non-abelian Galois cohomology)
@LeakyNun the thing is, the condition $\varphi(\sigma,eb)=\sigma(e)\varphi(\sigma,b)$ looks a lot like a cocycle
do you know group cohomology?
@LeakyNun I've searched for a connection between non-abeilan Galois cohomology and Galois descent and I found this: asving.com/2016/11/26/descent-on-vector-spaces-and-cohomology
21:15
@MatheinBoulomenos some
that proof is more elegant if you know the result that $H^1(\Gamma, \operatorname{GL}_n(K))$ vanishes
that's a form of Hilbert's Satz 90, by the way
I see
21:27
Hello
I want to prove that each continuous function $f$ in a closed and bounded interval $[a,b]$ can be approximated uniformly with polynomials, as good as we want, i.e. for a given positive $\epsilon$, there is a polynomial $p$ such that

$$\max_{a \leq x \leq b} |f(x)-p(x)|< \epsilon.$$

Firstly, we should make sure that we can assume without loss of generality that the interval $[a,b]$ is contained in the open interval $(-\pi,\pi)$.

But why can we assume this?
who puts bright blue text on bright red background in 2018
Hey @LeakyNun
Do you maybe have an idea?
21:43
solve $0 \leq (-3 + x log(2))/(2 x)$ with x>0
wolfram alpha says $3/log(2) \leq x$
but when I do it by hand I get $3/(log(2)-2) \leq x$
where's the $-2$ coming from
What silly mistake and I making
/log
ah nvm
22:10
This document defines the operator norm on $B(H)$ as $||T|| = \sup_{||x||=1} ||Tx||$, and the proceeds with the following calculation: $||T^*T|| = \sup_{||x||=1=||y||} |\langle T^*Tx,y \rangle | = \sup_{||x||=1=||y||} | \langle Tx,Ty \rangle| = ||T||^2$
Why are there two variables ($x$ and $y$) involved in that calculation? That doesn't follow the given definition. I don't understand the calculation.
By the way, I am referring to page 16 (or 18) in that document.
From my understanding, $||T^*T|| = \sup_{||x||=1} \sqrt{\langle T^* Tx, T^* Tx \rangle}$, which doesn't even remotely agree with the calculation.
Yo, does this integral have a name $\int_{-\text{ko}}^{\text{ko}} e^{-i z \sqrt{\text{ko}^2-k^2}} \, dk$ ? Or evaluate to something?
22:38
I think it’s a Bessel function?
@MatheinBoulomenos Cyclic groups do not act freely on S^2. The only map without fixed points is (conjugate to) the antipodal map
So Z/2 gets that 3-periodicitg and only in Z/2 homology
And of course it has the 1-periodicity from S^0 ;)
I don't know about SO(n), of course A_n sits inside that so any group of order n-1, right?
But there are classifications of which groups act freely on spheres
So suppose a finite group $G$ acts freely on S^n, can we write down a period complex $P_\bullet$ of $G$-modules such that for any $G$-module $A$, the Tate cohomology is the homology of the complex $Hom_G(P_\bullet,A)$?
it works for cyclic groups
13
Q: Which groups act freely on $S^n$?

Balarka SenWhen $n$ is even, it is easy to classify groups which act freely on $S^n$ using degree theory: if $G$ acts on $S^n$, then associating to each element $g \in G$ the degree of the map obtained from multiplication by $g$, one gets a map $d : G \to \{\pm 1\}$. It is easy to verify this is a homomorph...

@Mathei Allow me to not think about this, I am too scared of saying something wrong
22:52
@Semiclassical I cant' tell.
Current game plan is to Series expand in Mathematica and then integrate those terms :-/
Then be like "high order terms are negligible" behold my exact solution to a well known, and much studied physics problem.
Ehh, I’d start by subbing $k=k_0 \sin x$
Integrate[ Series[Exp[-I*z*Sqrt[ko^2 - k^2]], {k, 0, ducks_given}], {k, -ko, +ko}]
Also, since the integrand is an even function you can restrict to positive values at the cost of a factor of 2
@MikeMiller another question, about covering spaces. Since covering spaces of $X$ are equivalent to $\pi_1(X)$-Sets (or locally constant set-valued sheaves), we see that the category of them is complete and cocomplete. How do we compute limits and colimits? Just like in the slice category $\mathbf{Top}/X$?
$$
\begin{matrix}
1-\lambda & 2 \\
2 & 1-\lambda
\end{matrix}$$
Is there an easy way to get the eigenvalues for this matrix?
*EIGENVECTORS
*eigenvectors
22:59
@Semiclassical $\frac{\text{ko} e^{-i \text{ko} z} (3604299271372800+\text{ko} z (\text{ko} z (-162886633273665+\text{ko} z (\text{ko} z (3847551062985+\text{ko} z (415261645785 i-11 \text{ko} z (3174578001+13 \text{ko} z (\text{ko} z (-720450+17 \text{ko} z (19 \text{ko} z-1275 i))+15601572 i))))-28107268226100 i))+763603178502465 i))}{1802149635686400}$ (20 terms for fun)
what in the world
That seems proof more of the futility of that approach
what is $\text{ko}$
around eight : -)
some number?
ah
23:15
mmmm, seems to diverge a lot when I keep adding other terms
like: Column[N[Table[
Integrate[
Series[Exp[-I*z*Sqrt[ko^2 - k^2]], {k, 0,
terms}], {k, -r, +r}] /. {r -> 7, ko -> 7, z -> 2}, {terms,
15}], 2]]
> 1.9-13.9 I
34.-9. I
34.-9. I
30.+59. I
30.+59. I
-85.+68. I
-85.+68. I
-1.3*10^2-8.*10^1 I
-1.3*10^2-8.*10^1 I
2.*10^1-1.8*10^2 I
2.*10^1-1.8*10^2 I
1.7*10^2-8.*10^1 I
1.7*10^2-8.*10^1 I
1.4*10^2+8.*10^1 I
1.4*10^2+8.*10^1 I
@JakeRose: Your question confuses me. Do you mean the matrix $\begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 \\ 2 & 1\end{bmatrix}$?
No the matrix was correct as written
Ive included the eigenvalues
No, the matrix isn't correct as written.
You then want the nullspace of that matrix.
For the particular values of $\lambda$ which are eigenvalues of the original.
Hello @Ted
Hi @Abcd
So what are the eigenvalues, numerically?
@Mikhail: Please don't enter stuff like that. It messes up all our screens for hours.
23:22
If $\alpha$ is the only real root of the equation $x^3+ bx^2 +cx +1=0$ $(b<c)$, then what can we say about $\sin \alpha$? I know that $\alpha<0$ (leakynun explained it)
Could somebody help me work out $div(ar-b)$ where a = $(x,y,z)$, b is a constant vector and a is a scalar multiple
I mean is $\sin \alpha>0$ or <0
@Ted Do you have any idea about it?
Not offhand, @Abcd.
Is it 3a?
@JakeRose: I'm not inclined to answer your questions if you ignore me when I try to.
23:25
@TedShifrin OH my bad sorry I didnt see your previous message
I calculated the eigenvalues as -1 and 3
Right. So now put one of those in and find the nullspace (and maybe you call it kernel) of the resulting matrix. Both cases will be very easy to do.
@TedShifrin Specifically the question is: Find the value of $2\arctan (\csc \alpha)+ \arctan(2\sin\alpha \sec^2 \alpha)$ which simplifies to $2(\arctan \sin(\alpha)+ \arctan (\csc \alpha))$ . Then it eventually boils down to finding the sign of sin alpha because that decides whether the answer is $-\pi$ or $\pi$
@Abcd: You come up with the most arcane questions ... and I never find them very interesting (to me).
Thats what I did
I was just wondering if there was a simple trick to doing it faster
Okay :/
23:29
No, @JakeRose. But for $2\times 2$ matrices if you have the correct eigenvalues, it's very easy, because the rows will be multiples of one another, so you just need a vector orthogonal to one of the rows. How do you give me a vector orthogonal to $(a,b)$?
@Abcd: Oh, I see. If you know that equation has only one real root (so everything else is irrelevant), the fact that the polynomial $f(x)=x^3+bx^2+cx+1$ has value $1$ at $0$ means the graph must cross the $x$-axis before you get to $x=0$. So the root must be negative.
We're in 2D, @JakeRose. No.
Very easily, what's a vector orthogonal to $(3,4)$?
How do you know that the rows will be multiples of eachother btw?
@TedShifrin Yes, I know that the root is negative ...but how much negative? That doesn't help us find the sign of sin alpha
Because having an eigenvalue means that the matrix you wrote down ($A-\lambda I$) is singular.
23:32
Because sin can be positive for negative arguments too
Because the det(...) =0?
So you are asking if $-\pi<\alpha<0$, @Abcd.
Yes
Right, @JakeRose. That makes the rows linearly dependent (scalar multiples).
Putting -1 gives:
b-c
and b<c
So for -1 its negative
23:34
Oh, so that does it.
\implies root is between -1 and 0
Done :D
Right. You have it.
See ... you didn't need me at all.
No :P . You gave the idea of "putting the values to check"
@JakeRose: The hint is to switch the two numbers and make one negative.
Is the linear dependence resulting in the determinant = 0 a general property for any nxn matrix?
23:37
Yes.
How do you prove it?
Not asking for you to do so but just the general direction
Depends how much you know.
Do you know properties of determinant if you do row operations?
just use the wedge power man
smacks Leaky
Besides, that doesn't help.
Yes I think so
23:38
So if I can take row $n$ and subtract a bunch of multiples of earlier rows and get $0$ what does that tell me about the determinant?
@TedShifrin if it's 0, then it's in the ideal generated by the ei wedge ei guys, so linear dependent
@Leaky. Shaddup.
For any non-archimedean local field $K$ (ring of integers $\mathcal O_k$ and residue field $k$), the following three categories are canonically equivalent:
1. $L/K$ finite unramified extension
2. $R/\mathcal O_K$ unramified ring extension
3. $l/k$ finite separable extension
4. finite sets with a continuous transitive $\widehat{\Bbb Z}$-action
Don't you want some finiteness continuous condition in 2., too, though?
@LeakyNun
Gruß am Sylowmeister
@MatheinBoulomenos maybe my professor forgot to write that
@MatheinBoulomenos how does that work?
23:50
Galois theory, basically
@JakeRose: Did you figure out what I asked?
@MatheinBoulomenos what is the map?
Sorry Im bordeline falling asleep its rather late here
A vector orthogonal to 3,4?
Well, that was two questions ago. And I gave a hint for that one. Then you asked about determinant.
Maybe you should get some sleep :)
If $l/k$ is a finite extension, then this is the splitting field of some irreducible polynomial. $\operatorname{Gal}(k^{alg}/k)$ acts on the roots of that polynomial
23:51
Is it that the determinant is =0?
the residue fields are perfect
so I realized
Yes, to that. @JakeRose
Also I dont know if my brain isnt functioning right but how do you get a vector orthogonal to that?
I told you what to do, but I don't ping on everything I write @JakeRose. Switch the numbers and make one negative.
23:52
Do you have to have every row satisfy that property also?
Well, $\operatorname{Gal}(K^{ur}/K)= \widehat{\Bbb Z}$, so you can do that, too
Yes, and it's true, along with other properties, @JakeRose.
@TedShifrin Really sorry, not at my usual standard today
$K^{ur}$ is the maximally unramified extension
@MatheinBoulomenos you just took the external limit of my equivalent categories :P
direct limit
23:53
that doesn't make sense
Oh yeah thats a cool little trick
@MatheinBoulomenos Gal(K^ur/K) = Gal(k^alg/k) because of the equivalence of 1 and 3
Congruent triangles, if you draw the picture, shows you why those vectors are orthogonal, @JakeRose.
@MatheinBoulomenos why is it continuous?
23:54
I was thinking more in terms of scalar product
factors over a discrete quotient
But that was is also nice
I'm not very familiar with the profinite topology
Well, sure, @JakeRose. But I use this example to motivate the definition of scalar product in my book/lectures.
@LeakyNun if $l/k$ is finite, then the topology is constructed such that $\operatorname{Gal}(k^{alg}/k) \to \operatorname{Gal}(l/k)$ is continuous with the discrete topology on the RHS
note that this is also equivalent to the category of finite coverings of $S^1$
23:57
iNTERESTING
*interesting
which is?
Im definitely gonna check out your lectures more when I have some free time over summer
OK, sleep well :)
@LeakyNun those 4 categories we mentioned are equivalent to the category of finite connected (forgot that) coverings of $S^1$
and also, up to equivalence, they don't depend on $K$
which is weird
interesantissimo

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