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15:02
@Silent that's wrong. $x^2+x+1$ has $\omega$ and $\omega^2$ as roots
@MatheinBoulomenos derp of course $x^3-1$ isn't irreducible
Silent ignore my previous message, I wasn't paying attention :/
Also hi @Mathei
Hi @AlessandroCodenotti
@Silent an example of such a matrix is $$\begin{pmatrix}0 & -1\\
1 & -1\end{pmatrix}$$
lol here I am fiddiling with cut out pieces of paper trying to figure out how to make a $2$-sphere out of two $2$-simplices but it wasn't working. Google: hey bud you can't do that
o
oops
Ted would be happy that I tried to get a geometric intuition out of physical triangles, I hope he would be proud of me :3
lol
I'm a little surprised you can't, actually. I'd have imagined you could get way with taking the two triangles and identifying the edges/vertices but not the faces
the problem I'm running into is that you get a band around the equator that goes the wrong way
15:13
hmm
I'm a bit stuck on the calculation of a class number @Mathei, want to help me?
So the field is $\Bbb Q(\sqrt{-6})$ and the class number should be $2$ (I'm asked to prove that it is $2$ so it better be!)
The Minkowski bound is 3.11
semi, here's a fun thing
So I'm looking at $(2)$ and $(3)$ in $\mathcal{O}_K$, which I think are both ramified, $(2)=\mathfrak p^2$ with $\mathfrak p=(2,\sqrt{-6})$ and $(3)=\mathfrak q^2$ with $\mathfrak q=(3,\sqrt{-6})$
15:18
so you glue together two 2-simplices along their border, trying to make a sphere
except no matter how you traverse the equator, you're contradicting yourself in what direction you're going. you have to make an equivalence class for the space to work
so along the equator, going forwards and going backwards are identified, and you get $x \sim-x$
as the choice of equator is arbitrary you get $\mathbb RP^2$ @Semiclassical
:D
@Alessandro so far, so good. The next thing to do is to compute $\mathfrak{p}\mathfrak{q}$
fun stuff
A, B and C throw a die alternately and this keeps repeating.
What is the probability that A throws the first six, B the second and C the second?
(and to convince yourself that $\mathfrak{p}$ and $\mathfrak{q}$ are not principal)
@MatheinBoulomenos Wait why? I was thinking that now I want to decide whether there are $a,b\in\mathcal{O}_K$ with $(a)\mathfrak p=(b)\mathfrak q$
15:21
A, B and C throw a die alternately and this keeps repeating.
What is the probability that A throws the first six, B the second and C the second?

What is the probability that the first six is thrown by A, the second by B and the third by B?

Are these two statements equivalent?

Sorry I missed out the last part before.
I just why or why not the two statements are equivalent
@AlessandroCodenotti if $\mathfrak{p}\mathfrak{q}$ is principal, then in the class group $\mathfrak{p}$ and $\mathfrak{q}$ are inverses of each other, but since they have order 2, they are actually equal
Oh, right, that makes sense
Note that $(\sqrt{-6})^2=(6)=(2)(3)=\mathfrak{p}^2\mathfrak{q}^2$. If you compare norms a bit, then this implies $\mathfrak{p}\mathfrak{q}=(\sqrt{-6})$ (you could also compute that directly)
Well to go about it the naive way $\mathfrak p\mathfrak q=(6,2\sqrt{-6},-6,3\sqrt{-6})=(6,\sqrt{-6})=(\sqrt{-6})$
Skipping a few double inclusions here and there
or you use that $\mathfrak{p}$ and $\mathfrak{q}$ are prime, so we get from $\mathfrak{p} \mid (\sqrt{-6})^2 \Rightarrow \mathfrak{p} \mid (\sqrt{-6})$ and the same for $\mathfrak{q}$
either way, if you know that $\mathfrak{p}\mathfrak{q}$ is principal, you're done
15:30
Indeed, thanks a lot for your help!
Now I have $\Bbb Q(\sqrt{-31})$ to do, let's see if I can work it out by myself this time
Actually now I'm doubting what I said semi, lemme think about it more
This whole class number business is fantastic by the way, it's amazing how many smart ideas where developed to decide whether a ring of integers is an UFD
yeah
if you try to prove that $\Bbb Z[\frac{1+\sqrt{-19}}{2}]$ is a PID with elementary methods, that's really tedious
with the class group and Minkowski bound stuff, that's really easy
Do you get a bound lower than 2?
you get a bound between 2 and 3, but $(2)$ is inert
15:40
Oh, I see, that's still a very nice one
Ah, by the way, I have a curiosity, is there a simple way to construct a field with a class number bigger than some fixed $n$?
that ring is the easiest example of a non-Euclidean PID
I guess proving that it not Euclidean is far from straightforward?
it's not too bad
the idea is this: suppose $R$ is an Euclidean domain with Euclidean function $\varphi$. Choose $c \in R$ non-zero non-unit such that $\varphi(c)$ is minimal among all non-zero non-units. Then by definition of a Euclidean domain, $\forall a \in A, \exists q,r \in R$ such that $a=qc+r$ with $r$ either $0$ or a unit. For $\Bbb Z[\frac{1+\sqrt{-19}}{2}]$, the only units are $\pm 1$, so the only possibilities for $r$ are $-1,0,1$.
Then there are some elementary calculations with different choices of $a$ to show that such a $c$ can't exist
Well it does sound better than I expected
@AlessandroCodenotti one can show that if for two natural numbers $n,m$ $d=n^m-1$ is square-free, then the class group of $\Bbb Q(\sqrt{-d})$ has an element of order $m$. I'm not sure how to show that you can always choose $n$ and $m$ with $m$ arbitrarily large such that $d$ will be square-free, though
15:52
I see
another "vague" question, there is a very obvious and important difference between class number $1$ and class number $>1$, but what does the class number being $3$ rather than $2$ or $457$ tell me about the field?
I think Zagier showed that for every number $n$, there are only finitely many imaginary quadratic fields with class number $n$, so if you just choose $\Bbb Q(\sqrt{-d})$ for $d$ large enough, you'll get the class number as large as you want
I'm sure about the result, but not sure if it is due to Zagier
@AlessandroCodenotti intuitively, the class group measures "how much" the ring is from a PID, so a small class number is somehow "closer" to being a PID than a large class number. If you do some calculations with ideals in the ring of integers, than knowing the class number can be helpful. For example, suppose you know that for some ideal $I$ $I^p$ is principal and $p$ doesn't divide the class number. Then you get essentially by elementary group theory that $I$ itself is principal
($p$ is prime)
this kind of argument is basically why Fermat's last theorem is easier to prove for primes $p$ such that $p$ doesn't divide the class number of $\Bbb Q(\zeta_p)$
@MatheinBoulomenos Ah, I've heard about Kummer's proof for regular primes
"We still have the cells $e_0 \cup e_0 \cup e_1 \cup e_1$ on the equator. We want 1-cells so looking down it looks like a pokeball."
lol topology
yeah, it's really this reason why Kummer introduced regular primes. In the argument, you show that some $p$th power of an ideal in $\Bbb Z[\zeta_p]$ is principal.
I see, I want to read the proof, but maybe after the exams
well I have to go for a while now, thanks a lot! @Mathei
16:02
you're welcome @Alessandro
16:36
Bleeeeeeeeep
AKS Dies not exist
Hello, what you do when you are unable to solve a mathematical problem and feel frustrated?
putting a voltage across pencil graphite was an old high school amusement
Take a bath and sleep
16:41
@MatheinBoulomenos Thank you so much! Is it true that if $\alpha\in K$ is algebraic over field $F$, where $K$ is field extension of $F$, then any polynomial $p$ with coefficients in $F$ and $\deg p=n$, we can find an $n\times n$ matrix with entries from $F$?
I'm too much frustrated and I don't know what to do in order to be good in that
@Silent That question looks incomplete
You don't need to be good to take a bath and sleep
@Secret hehehe
lol
16:45
helo
I took a coaching for JEE and brought a of material of 32067 pages which is to be completed in a month, but I'm not able to solve a single problem properly
Life sucks
@AlessandroCodenotti no i mean that, as above , $w$ and $w^2$ are roots of $x^2+x+1$, and we get a matrix of real matrix does this happen always?
@Silent So you want the minimal polynomial of $F$ to have $\alpha$ as a root? Who's $n$?
Why is there no common language in math like latin?
Isn't it "not good" to have German people with their own vocabulary for math-things and English people with theirs? Why is there no common language?
in medicine this is no problem...
@AlessandroCodenotti yes, i think that's what i want to ask
So, does that always happen?
we always get matrix?
17:00
Math notation is largely international @watchme
@AlessandroCodenotti, for example, $3\times 3$ real matrix exists with char polynomial $x^3-1$. Does this always happen?
Yes, look up the so called companion matrix of a polynomial
Wow! This was amazing jackpot :) Thank you so much
17:19
I wonder if the cube of companion matrix has any significance :P
We have the weights of coins: 50ct ~7,8g, 1€~7,5g, 2€~8,5g.

If we have that the total weight is 143,5 g, what is the value of coins?

Let x,y,z the number of each coins (50cents, 1 Euro, 2 euro), then we have that 7.8x + 7.5y + 8.5z = 143,5, right?

What we want to calculate is x/2 + y + 2z.
How can we caluclate x, y, z?
Do we have to solve 7.8x + 7.5y + 8.5z = 143,5 for one variable and then use inequalities, so that x,y,z are positive?
Does someone of you have an idea?
uh, that's one equation in 3 unknowns, so it is not going to have a unique solution?
equivalently, you've got 78x+75y+85z=1535 where x,y,z are integers
17:27
Yes! But how can we caluclate from that x,y,z? @Semiclassical
@Secret the fact that there's an integer number of coins is probably the saving grace
Ah, so this is a linear diophataine equation
yeah, that's the question
i'm not entirely convinced there's going to be a unique solution
Accoring to wolfram there is a unique integer solution
But how can we find it?
17:29
In mathematics, a Diophantine equation is a polynomial equation, usually in two or more unknowns, such that only the integer solutions are sought or studied (an integer solution is a solution such that all the unknowns take integer values). A linear Diophantine equation equates the sum of two or more monomials, each of degree 1 in one of the variables, to a constant. An exponential Diophantine equation is one in which exponents on terms can be unknowns. Diophantine problems have fewer equations than unknown variables and involve finding integers that work correctly for all equations. In mor...
well, you can rearrange that to 78x=1535-75y-85z
You need to find one solution, and then the other solutions are given by integer multiples of their quotient or something
and the RHS is divisible by 5, so x has to be a multiple of five
so let x=5x' and then divide through by 5 to get 78x'+15y+17z=307
hmm... the remaining coefficients are pairwise coprime, I am not sure how that helps
no, they're not. 78 and 15 have 3 as a common factor
17:32
ah right...
i guess you can take that equation mod 3 to get 2z=1 mod 3
and multiplying both sides by 2 gives 4z=z=2 mod 3
so z=3z'+2
in which case you can simplify that to 78x'+15y+51z'=273 -> 26x'+5y+17z'=91
and then you really do have pairwise coprime coefficients
I need to revise whether bezout's identity works for 3 terms
gcd(26,5,17) =/= 91 though... hmm...
gcd(x',y,z')=91?
i guess at this point you can note that 0 <= x' <= 3 since 26(4)=104
so there's not so many choices possible for x', and similarly 0<= y <=17, 0<= z' <= 5
17:40
I understand!

Is this only the way? I mean is there also an other way, to see this as a diophantine equation?
so in principle one could do the brute force task of plugging in all possible x',z' into 91-26x'-17z' and see which choices are a multiple of 5
Hey everyone!
hmm....
7.8x + 7.5y + 8.5z = 143,5 should be 78x + 75y + 85z = 14350?
Wy not 1435 ? @Secret
is 143,5 143.5?
17:46
143.5
ah ok, so the equation after multiply by 10 is 78x + 75y + 85z = 1435
So according to diophataine analysis in that link, I need to first check gcd(78,75,85)
and check if it divides 1435
Is the only way to solve that seeing it as a diophantine equation?

Can we maybe get an additional information that 2 Euro = 2*1 Euro = 4*50 cents ?
are x,y,z all euros or some euros or cents?
17:49
x is the number of 50 cents coins, y the number 1 euro coins and z the number of 2 euro coins
Can we get an infomation from that? Do you have an idea?
so that means, converting all of them into cents, they will become x,y,z=x',2y',4z'
and this give us the equation:
78x'+150y'+340z'=1435
Ok! And what do we have then?
wait a minute, is it supposed to be that complicated. I think I need to look at the original question again (why do we have $7.8 of 50 cents to start with?)
because logically if only one of these is cents, then the decimal part can only be contributed by cents
so I found it strange why the number of each type of coin is multiplied to some decimal number
We have the weights of coins: 50ct is 7,8gram, 1€ is 7,5gram, 2€ is 8,5gram.

In a box we have a weight of 143.5 g.

We want to know the value of coins in the box.
ah grams... ok, there's no shortcut then
17:56
So do we have to convert everything into cents?
Or what do we have to here, exept using diophantine equations?
I thought the stuff on the RHS is monetary value.
No, the weight of each coin has no easy/integer correlation with its weight (as you can see in the given question) thus conversion is useless here
Ah ok
So yeah, the only efficient way to solve it is to solve 7.8x+7.5y+8.5z=143.5 as a diophataine equation
So that means, the first step is to find gcd(78,75,85) and see if it divides 1435
78=2*3*13
75=3*5*5
85=5*17
thus gcd=1 uh... that's not very useful...
yeah... I think Semiclassical's way is the most efficient we have there
1435=5*7*41
hmm, 78 and 85 are coprime with each other so 78x+85y=1. Meanwhile we have 78x+85y=1435-85z thus perhaps 1=1435-85z and z = ....
ugh, that does not work
18:14
Yay done with my last assignment
@Silent you can always construct a $n \times n$ matrix with a given monic polynomial $f(x)=x^n+a_{n-1}x^{n-1}+\dots + a_0$ as a characteristic polynomial:
$$\begin{pmatrix}0 & & &\dots & 0 & -a_0\\
1 & 0 & &\dots & 0 & -a_1\\
0 & 1 & 0 & \dots &0& -a_2\\
\ddots &\ddots&\ddots &\ddots &\ddots &\vdots\\
0 & &\ldots & 0 & 1 &-a_{n-1}
\end{pmatrix}$$
@MatheinBoulomenos Thank you so much for this!
you will need Laplace expansion and induction if you want to prove this
78x + 75y + 85z = 1435
3x + 0y + 0z = 0 mod 5
0x + 0y + 1z = 1 mod 3
hmm...
so 5 | x and 3 | z
Thus we have:
78x' + 25y + 17z = 287
Hey @Mathein!
18:22
hey @Daminark
where x'=5x
Ah ok!
there should be some other ways to reduce it. Still thinking
correction z = 1 mod 3 means z is in the equivalence class 3n + 1
so z = 4,7,10,13,16,... and x = 5,10,15,20,25,...
0x + 10y + 7z = 5 mod 13
10x + 7y + 0z = 7 mod 17
now does bezout identity work in modular arithmetic?
If $f \in L^p(\Bbb{R}$ (i.e., $|f|^p$ is integrable), does this mean that $f$ vanishes outside some bounded set almost everywhere?
So we start with the linear diophataine equation:
78x + 75y + 85z = 1435
and this can be resolved into the following system of congruence relations:
3x + 0y + 0z = 0 mod 5
0x + 0y + 1z = 1 mod 3
0x + 10y + 7z = 5 mod 13
10x + 7y + 0z = 7 mod 17
Thus we have:
x = 5m
z = 3n + 1
(solving)
(solving)
18:35
@user193319 consider $f(x) = \frac{1}{x^2}$ if $|x|>1$ and $f(x)=1$ if $|x| \leq 1$ this doesn't vanish anywhere and it's in $L^p(\Bbb R)$ for all $p \in [1,\infty]$
Using x we can go further and get:
78x' + 25y + 17z = 287
which we should be able to repeat the same game to get:
@user193319 or you can take a Gaussian $e^{-x^2}$ that doesn't vanish anywhere and is in $L^p$ for all $p\in [1,\infty]$
@MatheinBoulomenos Ah, I see. Thanks for the examples!
0x' + 1y + 2z = 2 mod 3
3x' + 0y + 2z = 2 mod 5
10x' + 8y + 0z = 15 mod 17
@Secret @MaryStar the systematic approach to solving a linear diophantine equation $a_1x_1+ \dots +a_nx_n=c$ if $\gcd(a_1, \dots, a_n)$ divides $c$ is this:
- use the extended Euclidean algorithm to find a solution for $a_1x_1+ \dots +a_nx_n=\gcd(a_1, \dots, a_n)$
- multiply that solution by $\frac{c}{\gcd(a_1, \dots, a_n)}$
18:43
the problem here is that for 78x + 75y + 85z = 1435, the gcd is 1
hmm...
uh... 78x + 75y + 85z = 1??
and x,y,z > 0?
yeah, you won't always have positive solutions with that approach
hmm...
but once you have one solution for 78x + 75y + 85z = 1435, you can get the other solutions if you add solutions of 78x+75y+85z=0
right
19:16
o. .o
can you have a function that has a real variable in it and a complex variable in it?
for example: (w)^(1/log(x)), where w is a complex number and x is a real number
sure, why not
and are the roots of a complex function where the real part and complex part both equal zero at the same time?
@geocalc33 real part and imaginary part
and yes
19:43
@geocalc33 just remember that that expression is really an infinite set of functions unless you choose a convention as to which branch you choose
hey all I'd like to know whether this would be a suitable question here.

I have an equation for a signal x, given as dx/dt = (B - x) * max(0, input) + (D - x) * max(0, -input). the purpose is to control the gain of the signal x so that it's in the interval [D, B]. what the above expression does is basically, for positive inputs, increase x until it reaches B, and afterwards decrease it. vice versa for a negative input that drives x below D

my question is whether this equation can be written without using max, i.e. only via basic algebraic operations, and why (not). for example, I thought
also I should add that the exact behavior of the equation is not that important, all that matters is that the signal is driven in the correct direction and driven back when it passes the bound (possibly proportionally to the distance from the bound)
basically is this an ok thing to ask here or is it too engineer-ish? I am actually interested in the math behind it otherwise I wouldn't really bother:)
20:17
Sounds mathy enough to me, to ask on the site @jcora
They can always migrate it to physics.se if ppl don't think so, but it seems fine to me
20:31
awesome I'll post it later!
20:54
if someone feels like it, help me format:)
I don't know latex
21:13
@jcora: Perhaps you didn't know this — $\max(x,y) = \frac12\big(x+y+|y-x|\big)$.
Yeah that's a weird identity.
Hi @Ted and @Balarka
@TedShifrin interesting
Hi @Alessandro, mr @Balarka, and @Leaky
Hi @Alessandro, @Ted.
21:14
Hi @Leaky
Well, at least Kasmir is still alive ...
Weird fun fact: there exists a normal subgroup $N$ in $\operatorname{SL}_{2}(\Bbb Z)$ such that $\operatorname{SL}_{2}(\Bbb Z)/N$ is isomorphic to the monster group
Agh. That's too monstrous.
21:22
Jesus fuck
How's that fun
@MatheinBoulomenos :o
really
I think it's fun
same here
@MatheinBoulomenos citation-needed
isn't $SL_2(\Bbb Z)$ freely generated by a $2$-cycle and a $3$-cycle
21:23
Yep
so then the monster group is di-generated?
so we only need to show that the monster group can be generated by a $2$-cyc
welp
yes
wait, I think that's $PSL_2(\Bbb Z)$
@MatheinBoulomenos still citation-needed
Wilson asserts that the best description of the Monster is to say, "It is the automorphism group of the monster vertex algebra". This is not much help however, because nobody has found a "really simple and natural construction of the monster vertex algebra".[1]
21:25
24
A: Generating finite simple groups with $2$ elements

Pete L. ClarkSince I happen to know the OP is number-theoretically inclined, let me add the following remark: For "most" finite simple groups $G$ it is indeed the case that $G = \langle x, y \rangle$ where $x$ has order $2$ and $y$ has order $3$. Equivalently, $G$ is a quotient of the free product $\mathbb{...

never mind
Pete Clark doesn't give a reference on the fact that the monster group is generated by an element of order 2 and an element of order 3, but apparently that's "well-known"
For some broad definition of well-known
that's a pretty large definition of "well-known"
21:27
>..>
also note the geometric consequence: if let that normal subgroup act on $\overline{\mathcal H}$ by Möbius transforms, the quotient is a modular curve that is a branched covering over $\Bbb P^1(\Bbb C)$ with the monster group as the group of deck transformations
That's enough to make me retire completely.
don't you like Riemann surfaces? :P
but
would the normal subgroup contain a congruence subgroup
21:37
no idea. That subgroup probably isn't very easy to describe
I kind of want to study modular forms wrt this subgroup just because it's so weird
the subgroup is just the kernel of the projection :)
@Mathei do you have five minutes to think about $\Bbb Q(\sqrt{-31})$?
Ok, the minkowski bound is between 3 and 4
$(2)$ is split, $(2)=\mathfrak p_1\mathfrak p_2$ with $\mathfrak p_1=\left(2,\frac{1+\sqrt{-31}}{2}\right)$ and $\mathfrak p_2=\left(2,\frac{1-\sqrt{-31}}{2}\right)$. $(3)$ is inert.
@TedShifrin is there a (simple) way to deduce from the tensor algebra quotient definition of the exterior algebra that $(\alpha\wedge\beta)_p(v,w) = \alpha(v)\beta(w) - \alpha(w)\beta(v)$?
For 1-forms $\alpha,\beta$
21:44
$\mathfrak{p}_1$ and $\mathfrak{p}_2$ are inverses of each other, so the class group is generated by the class of $\mathfrak{p}_1$. You only need to figure out the order
I know that $\mathfrak p_1$ and $\mathfrak p_2$ are each other inverse in the class group, so I only need to decide whether they are the same, that is whether $\mathfrak p_1^2$ is principal or not
well the order of $\mathfrak p_1$ actually
right
I thought it would be inherited from the tensor product of maps
$(\alpha\otimes \beta)(v,w) = \alpha(v)\beta(w)$
38
Q: General request for a book on mathematical history, for a VERY advanced reader.

KinoI am aware that there are answered similar questions on here, however I am specifically after a text that would be engaging for a professor of mathematics, also FRS. He is unwell and in the hospital, and I would like to get him something to pass the time. However anything aimed at undergraduate ...

@TedShifrin
Book recommendation for OP to give to a friend, a professional mathematician in the hospital
Guys. Silly question. How do I prove something as simple as this?
$$\sum_{k=0}^n a_k=\sum_{k=m}^{n+m} a_{k-m}$$
Define $k'=k+m$.
21:49
I don't follow
We have $k=k'-m$. Substituting it in, we get:
$\displaystyle \sum_{k=0}^na_k=\sum_{k'-m=0}^{k'-m=n}a_{k'-m}$
or $\displaystyle\sum_{k'=m}^{n+m}a_{k'-m}$
and then we drop the primes (i.e. substitute in $k$ for $k'$)
@Michael.P Alternate idea: Use induction
Prove it for $n=0$, and prove that if it's true for $n$ it's true for $n+1$
That seems potentially simpler
$\displaystyle\sum_{k=0}^0a_k=a_0$ and $\displaystyle\sum_{k=m}^ma_{k-m}=a_{m-m}=a_0$, so it's true for $n=0$
@AkivaWeinberger, I belive I explored similar proof, and found it to be erroneous (it relies on self-reference; e.g. like when you substitute in equation a variable from that same eq.) I'm talking about substitution
DogAteMy: I'm not sure I know of any "advanced" math history texts.
History of Inter Universal Teichmuller Theory maybe?
@AkivaWeinberger I tried that. I can't properly 'unfold' the right hand side so that part of it is clealy the original eq.
21:55
If $\displaystyle\sum_{k=0}^na_k= \sum_{k=m}^{m+n}a_{k-m}$, then \begin{align}\sum_{k=0}^{n+1}a_k&= \sum_{k=0}^na_k+a_{n+1}\\&=\sum_{k=m}^{m+n}a_{k-m}+a_{(m+n+1)-m} \\&= \sum_{k=m}^{m+n+1}a_{k-m},\end{align} finishing the induction proof.
@BalarkaSen perhaps you have an idea as to my question above? Let me recopy it.
It's not about induction. It's about algebraic substitution.
You can't replace $k$ with $k^2$ and expect it to work, though
is there a (simple) way to deduce from the tensor algebra quotient definition of the exterior algebra that $(\alpha\wedge\beta)_p(v,w)=\alpha_p(v)\beta_p(w)−\alpha_p(w)\beta_p(v)$, $\alpha,\beta$ being 1-forms.
whereas the substitution proof would seem to suggest that you could
so I think this is better
21:57
@anakhronizein Hmm. I'd just prove that basis-wise. Hmmm.
@anakhronizein: Well, with the quotient definition, you need to see that $\alpha\otimes\beta-\beta\otimes\alpha$ represents the equivalence class.
(That is, $\displaystyle\sum_{k=0}^na_k\ne\sum_{k=0}^{\sqrt n}a_{k^2}$ in general.)
lol @Akiva
Which equivalence class?
Well, DogAteMy, we need a bijection from one interval of integers to the other, thanks.
21:58
Besides, $\sum$ is defined inductively, so.
Blah.
I've never been that pedantic.
In any case, it is proven.
Proven it is
@anakhronizein: Elements of a quotient are equivalence classes.
21:59
So spaketh DogAteMy.
Thus Spake Akivathustra
In this case we are quotient-ing by the double sided ideal generated by the relations $v\otimes w + w\otimes v$

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