But like, I think I kind of get that when defining something like the dot product, which is a multilinear map and (I think) is technically a tensor, we can define it among all multilinear maps of that type by defining a 2 dimensional array. Is that correct?
If we have a multilinear operation $t: V \times W \to R$ and we let $e_i$ be the basis for $V$ and $\epsilon_i$ be the basis for $W$. The multi linearity of $t$ means that we can define $t$ entirely by defining what $t(e_i, \epsilon_j)$ evaluates to. So, for example, if we define $t(e_i, e_j) = 1$ where $e_i$ is the basis for cartesian …