I want to show that $\nabla\times (f\nabla g)=\nabla f\times \nabla g$.
We have that $f\nabla g=f\sum\frac{\partial g}{\partial x_i}\hat{x}_i$, therefore we get $\nabla\times (f\nabla g)=\nabla\times \left (f\sum\frac{\partial g}{\partial x_i}\hat{x}_i \right )$.
Is it correct so far? How could we continue?