I am curious to know if this function was in the literature, and mainly if it is possible define an analytic extension out of $\Re s>0$.
Let $N_n$ the $n$th primorial number, and $s=\sigma+it$ the complex variable. Then it is easy, using absolute convergence, to know that
$$\rho(s)=\sum_{n=1}^...
What experiences have prepared you for this REU? Well, honestly none! I'm just a simple lower division community college student who's barely began multivariate calculus! I'd love to do research but none of my professors do, so I'm kind of a hopeless candidate!
@Cookie: My general advice (although I think you're at least a year early to be applying) is to write about challenging exercises you've spent hours and hours being absorbed by. Or interesting mathematics that you've read about because you're so interested.
Not doing too much. Just thought about a question on main I'd never seen before. Sorta cute. Prove that if $f$ is a polynomial of degree $n$ with $n$ real roots, then $(f')^2>ff''$.
@TedShifrin Ok! There was this one problem from an old putnam exam in my textbook; $\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{dx}{1+tan^{\sqrt{2}}(x)}$. The answer was a simple but obscure $u$-substitution, but I instead spent half of the semester evaluating the interval by showing that it was symmetric with respect to the point in the direct center of the region of integration using infinite sums and generalized binomial theorem :) I could talk about that!
Specific things that you got engaged about are great, @Cookie. BTW, I have used that problem in my own multivariable course. There's another great way to do it.
Demonark: You mean $(\log f)'$, not what you wrote.
Put a variable $y$ in there instead of the $\sqrt2$, @Cookie. How does the integral vary as you vary $y$? [There's a powerful theorem that says under reasonable circumstances you can take the derivative of $y$ by differentiating under the integral sign.]
I do NOT approve of how you wrote it, Demonark. To me that's too much like $\log(f')$.
At first, it reminded me of the problem I put in Spivak that an old student gave me. $f$ poly of even degree $n$ with $f\ge 0$. Show that $f+f'+f''+\dots+f^{(n)}$ is always $\ge 0$. [I think I'm remembering it correctly.]
Taking the limit of $>$ gives $\ge$, you mean, Demonark?
@TedShifrin ok, so I'm a little stuck. I differentiate w.r.t. $y$ and get $\int_{0}^{\pi/2} \frac{ - \tan^{y}(x) \ln( \tan(x) ) }{(1 + \tan^{y}(x))^{2}}dx$, but I'm not sure where to go from here, unless its some really shitty by-parts or $u$-sub