Hi. I get the idea of looking at the central binomial coefficient as in the top answer of
mathoverflow.net/questions/258711/…, but what if, say, I have $\sum_{k=0}^K\binom{K}{k}^2 K^{-\alpha}$ for some $\alpha\in(0,2)$. Then because of $K^{-\alpha}$ the main contribution is from $k=0$ to some $x$. My attempts show that taking $x=C K^{\beta}$ with some $\beta<1/2$ might work, but I don't see how to show that.. any ideas?