First question: If $f : X \to [0,\infty]$ is a measurable function and $A$ and $B$ are disjoint measurable sets in $X$, then is it true that $$\int_{A \cup B} f \, d \mu = \int_A f \, d \mu + \int_B f \, d \mu?$$
Second question:Let $X$ be some space with $\sigma$-algebra $\frak{M}$ and measure ...
Let $H = L_2([-pi,pi])$. Let f,g in H defined by$ f(t) = t^2$ and $g(t) = t$ for every t in $[-pi,pi]$. Let E be subspace of H which is defined as the span of f and g. Find the distance between h = sin(t) and E.
(I'd also like to mention that I don't know shit in this subject so it's possible I led you through the most inefficient way out there, it's just the only systematic way I know)
Doing out the integral I got $\frac{\pi^2 - 6}{\pi}$, which disagrees with your $\sqrt{\pi}$ so it's possible I fucked up
:thonk:
But yeah double check things, but I think that's at least one systematic way to find the distance between a point $x$ and a closed subspace $M$ when you're working in Hilbert spaces
You let $d = d(x,M) = \inf_{y\in M} \|x-y\|$. Now, general rule in life, when you see an infimum, take a minimizing sequence first and ask if it helps letter. So choose $y_n$ such that $\|x-y_n\| \to d$
@Lucas I don't recall the one you mention, though I do follow some pages for math memes. Mathematical Mathematics Memes, Derived Memes for Spectral Schemes if I want to hear some words fly over my head because come on we all have that desire sometimes
Stuff like that
Anyway @Adeek, so you're prob gonna expand the right hand side of that inequality, and I will let you know what that comes out to once I get some paper
Presumably. @MatheinBoulomenos. That stuff is not too bad (at least the quadratic extension problems). Actually I'm not really that worried about the tests.
@TedShifrin the only frustrating thing at this point is that we're asked to "learn" some fairly obscure theorem which we had no homework on and mentioned only during the last lecture.
Seems like the only feasible problem would be "state the theorem," which seems like a pointless idea. People just memorize it, and then forget it. Sorta inevitably.
I'm setting up a self-study curriculum and was hoping I could get some feedback. Calc 3 -> Linear Alg -> Differential Eqs -> Complex Calc -> Probability & Stat -> Tensor Calc Any suggestions are welcomed!
But subspace is not necessary, convexity is enough for that. So $d(x,M)$ is achieved whenever $M$ is a closed, convex subset of $H$. I don't think you'll use that for anything but I dunno, it's kinda cute or something
@TedShifrin given the sequence $1,\ldots,100$, we tag all numbers with zeroes. Let, at any moment, $S_0$ denote the set of numbers tagged with zeroes with analogy to $S_1$. We'll always tag $\min S_0$. If we tag some number $x$ such that $\exists y \in S_1: x>y$, we put $y$ in $S_0$.
Like, I'm not exactly a pictures person in any event but like, I can get a vague picture of 3 dimensions even though I can't work with it, but I thought visualizing 4D is physically impossible
Thoughts for what? ... If you want to get an idea of the interplay between linear algebra and multivariable calculus done right, look at some of my lectures on YouTube (see my profile). The standard multivariable calculus courses in the US don't use any linear algebra at all, but in Europe they do.
In differential equations, a point x is stable if all the eigenvalues have negative real part. If at least one eigenvalue have positive real part, then x is unstable. What happens when the equilibrium point x doesn't have real part? Is it stable or unstable or nothing?
I know that when it's about imaginary eigenvalues, then circles (or something similar to circles ) will appear, but what can be say about their stability?
I lied, Matthei. We need the sheaf of principal parts for Mittag-Leffler ... That probably isn't coherent. I don't remember. Weierstrass product theorem probably works. But Cousin problems are all about gluing, so is Runge theorem.
not stable, @Isabella, because if you perturb slightly you can get an eigenvalue with a positive real part and ... away it goes.
I would love anyone's advice on this problem I'm working. I'm trying to show that for any non-orientable n-manifold there is a surjective immersion $f: O \to N$ where $O$ is some oriented n-manifold
Oh Im sorry and I should also say, the definition of orientable I have to use here is that theres an atlas whose transition functions have positive determinant
I have 5 physical books. One called second year calculus that I bought off someone when I was dying in physics, Spivak because since only the third edition was up as a pdf, Sally because I didn't find a pdf for quite some time, one on hyperbolic manifolds that I found in a free books pile, and one a friend gave me from complex (with Schlag), that I ended up using in my own complex class
If $\omega$ is an integrable 1-form on a 3-manifold, how can I show that $d\omega = \omega \wedge \alpha$ with $\alpha$ a 1-form? Locally I know why it cannot be that if $\omega \mapsto dx$, then $d \omega \mapsto dy \wedge dz$, but I'm not sure how to show that $d \omega \neq dx \wedge dx = 0$
Yeah I'm inclined to leave as well. I think I'd rather do something along the lines of number theory/algebra/discrete next, that's sorta my next project. For now I don't think I can do much but after Marianna and Emerton I'll hopefully be able to start doing some stuff
@robjohn I have recently asked about a duplicate closure in another chatroom. Since you have answer on one of the posts involved, maybe you would care to have a look. Thanks!
though I've actually been planning to stop by his office myself some time; I'm trying to figure out if there's anyone in the math department with expertise on something I'm working on, and his stuff is close enough that I'm hoping he'll have a suggestion (of who to talk with if nothing else)